Starting today August 7th, 2024, in order to post in the Married Couples, Courting Couples, or Singles forums, you will not be allowed to post if you have your Marital status designated as private. Announcements will be made in the respective forums as well but please note that if yours is currently listed as Private, you will need to submit a ticket in the Support Area to have yours changed.
Yes, and the conception of John the Baptist.Well we disagree about that. But is it true that the Orthodox celebrate the Conception of Mary
Most holy and first among the saints. Only God is All-Holy. Yes to new Eve.and see her as the New Eve, and as All-Holy?
Yes, and the conception of John the Baptist.
Most holy and first among the saints. Only God is All-Holy. Yes to new Eve.
No, why would you think that?Since Mary is the New Eve, wouldn't she be without Original Sin, like the first Adam and Eve (before they fell), and like Christ our Lord, the New Adam?
No, why would you think that?
Since I had alresdy told you what it means, I did not think it necessary to respond again. Do you know Greek? If not, then what you think it means is immaterial.I noticed that you didn't respond to my question about whether the Orthodox call Mary "Panagia", which I think means "All-Holy".
We believe that when Mary was overshadowed by the Holy Spirit she was made pure.As to your question, it would seem obvious that the New Eve would be completely unstained by Original Sin and any sin. Didn't the Church fathers like St. Ephrem and St. Germanus and St. Proclus teach that Mary was completely immaculate. I believe I read that St. Proclus said she was "formed without any stain of sin".
Since I had alresdy told you what it means, I did not think it necessary to respond again. Do you know Greek? If not, then what you think it means is immaterial.
We believe that when Mary was overshadowed by the Holy Spirit she was made pure.
Yes. I told you already.Do you know Greek? What does "panagia" mean?
Doctrine is not formed on the basis of individual's statementsBut didn't St. Proclus say that she was "formed without any stain"?
Hello again,!! Councils.Do you know Greek? What does "panagia" mean?
But didn't St. Proclus say that she was "formed without any stain"?
I mean, even the first Eve was formed without Original Sin. Wouldn't the New Eve be formed without any stain? In other words, how could the New Eve be inferior to the first Eve in any way?
Yes. I told you already.
Doctrine is not formed on the basis of individual's statements
Hello again,!! Councils.
For Traditional Anglicans the magisterium is Christ's Revelation,Scripture, the Bishops in Council,(Seven Ecumenical Councils.) The latter being guided as I understand by the Holy Ghost!
The Councils , at least three of them declared or defined the Lady Mary as the Mother of God, the Theotokos, telling us further that she is, Spotless , Immaculate and Ever Virgin . These things come to us from the teaching of the One, Holy Catholic and Apostolic Church and has been a constant in the faith of the Church. There's no teaching for The Lady being immaculately conceived.
I don't remember that. What does it mean?
No, but St. John Damascene also believed in the Immaculate Conception, didn't he?
What makes you say that?
On this night, the eve of the Feast of the Immaculate Conception (Dec 8), praise be to God for giving us Mary, the Immaculate Conception!
I have always been puzzled by the conflation of the person of Mary with the method of her conception. It is rather like saying President Obama the Columbia University.
It is an interesting question, and I haven't been able to find the answer. Yes, it's easy to find when it started (Middle Ages), and what it means (Mary's conception, not Jesus'), and so on, but why she would be said to "be the" Immaculate Conception like that remains unexplained.I have always been puzzled by the conflation of the person of Mary with the method of her conception..
It is an interesting question, and I haven't been able to find the answer. Yes, it's easy to find when it started (Middle Ages),.
It is recorded as starting during the Dark Ages and becoming well established around AD1100, which would be the time when Chivalric Romance and the 'Cult of the Virgin' were in full force. If you check your own church's saints, sources, and websites you'll see that this is the case.What do you mean, exactly, when you say that the doctrine of the Immaculate Conception started in the Middle Ages?
It is recorded as starting during the Dark Ages and becoming well established around AD1100, which would be the time when Chivalric Romance and the 'Cult of the Virgin' were in full force. If you check your own church's saints, sources, and websites you'll see that this is the case.
Why is it like saying President Obama is the Columbia University? Or why is being immaculately conceived a "method"?
We use cookies and similar technologies for the following purposes:
Do you accept cookies and these technologies?
We use cookies and similar technologies for the following purposes:
Do you accept cookies and these technologies?