If you had unmistakable proof that God didn't exist...

What would you do with proof that God doesn't exist?

  • I'm a theist and I think I would release that evidence to the public

  • I'm a theist and I don't think I would release that evidence to the public

  • I'm a non-theist and I think I would release that evidence to the public

  • I'm a non-theist and I don't think I would release that evidence to the public


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Jnwaco

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Your point?"Moral subjectivism is EVILLLLL!!!!!!!1111!!11!!1" doesn't change the fact that objective morality doesn't exist. Add to that the fact that pretty much every moral subjectivist is a nice person and you have yourself a terrible argument.

Man, none of that was proof. Even the fact that you state that moral subjectivists are "nice" is a statement that is based on objective standards. If morality is subjective, then that statement loses all of it's argumentative power and you've said nothing.

Also Godwin's Law = you lose the argument. I'm sorry but that's how the rules work. Don't mention Hitler because all that means is that you've run out of real arguments.

Godwin's law is an internet joke, not a real logical fallacy. It's funny, but likewise meaningless.

Can we extend Godwin's Law to include all dictators?


Objective morality does exist.

Again, if I steal something from you, you will state (at least to yourself) that I am wrong. When you state this, you're using an objective standard by which you determine if something is wrong or right.

1) If morality is really subjective, one would realize that actions which they think of as wrong are only their opinion.
2) However,

nevermind - wife's water just broke - see ya in a few days....
 
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The Penitent Man

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And yours is somehow different? Yours is absolute? You've already proven it isn't, so why are you now trying to claim again that it is?

Is it moral to kill children?

Now therefore kill every male among the little ones, and kill every woman that hath known man by lying with him.

Is it moral to kill children?

Is it moral to use such weak strawmen?
 
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Robbie_James_Francis

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I don't believe in gods and I would reveal it immediately. If I found evidence that God(s) existed, I'd do the same.

I don't really buy the argument that we'd descend into chaos if there was no theistic belief. First of all, theistic belief has caused more than its fair share of chaos anyway. Secondly, I don't think I've ever met anyone who would change their basic moral actions whether there was a God or not (e.g. Christians might stop going to church, but both Christians and atheists would still help the needy). In fact, I'd be intrigued to find out who only cares about injustice and starving children because they think some deity is watching. They could, and should, be quickly denounced as base and amoral people.
 
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plindboe

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Kind of like Stalin, Mao, Pol Pot, Hitler.... oh wait, they were fans of moral relativism, Hitler a huge fan of Neitzsche, for example. I don't think you want to compare body counts.

It would be a good idea to try to back up your claims: 1.The claim that all these guys were fans of moral relativism. 2.The claim that their moral relativism was the prime reason for their cruelty.


Man, none of that was proof. Even the fact that you state that moral subjectivists are "nice" is a statement that is based on objective standards. If morality is subjective, then that statement loses all of it's argumentative power and you've said nothing.

First of all, whether it's a valid argument to him doesn't matter. Since you're a moral objectivist, and the argument was addressed to you, how you deal with it is what ultimately matters.

Second of all, no. Stating that people are nice doesn't necessarily have to be based on objective standards. To say that acknowledging that morals are subjective, means one can't say a person is nice, is basically like saying that if one acknowledges that morals are opinions, then one can't have a moral opinion. This is of course self-contradictory.


Godwin's law is an internet joke, not a real logical fallacy. It's funny, but likewise meaningless.

It's a very decent rule, basically telling people to stop acting like hysterical fanatics in debates. Not only is the comparison an ad hominem, it usually involves cherry-picking, correlation confused with causation and certainly an appeal to emotion. Lastly, that these comparisons can be conjured up no matter what it is you're arguing shows just how weak it is.


Objective morality does exist.

Again, if I steal something from you, you will state (at least to yourself) that I am wrong. When you state this, you're using an objective standard by which you determine if something is wrong or right.

1) If morality is really subjective, one would realize that actions which they think of as wrong are only their opinion.

Only? If you have any experience with online debate and real life you should realize that opinions are usually held very strongly. People adhere to their opinions just as strongly as they would any objectively verified observations, if not even more strongly. You seem to think that realizing that morals are opinions, suddenly makes them weak and willy nilly. It doesn't, human beings don't work like that.

Try to realize that accepting that morals are subjective doesn't suddenly make them disappear in thin air. My taste in music is subjective too, but realizing this fact, doesn't make my specific taste meaningless to me. I'll react equally strongly to my favourite music as I would had my taste somehow been objective. My morals and my taste in music is a part of who I am, and I can't just make them go away simply by realizing that they are subjective.


nevermind - wife's water just broke - see ya in a few days....

Wow, congratulations!

Peter :)
 
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SithDoughnut

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Man, none of that was proof. Even the fact that you state that moral subjectivists are "nice" is a statement that is based on objective standards. If morality is subjective, then that statement loses all of it's argumentative power and you've said nothing.

I've demonstrated my opinion - I haven't claimed any facts when I include subjective standards.

Godwin's law is an internet joke, not a real logical fallacy. It's funny, but likewise meaningless.
It's a very useful way of stopping people trying to use dictators to prove a point. If anything, the fact that Hitler thought the holocaust was a good thing is just more evidence for moral subjectivity.

Objective morality does exist.
Then feel free to give evidence as to how it does.

Again, if I steal something from you, you will state (at least to yourself) that I am wrong. When you state this, you're using an objective standard by which you determine if something is wrong or right.
I'm not. I'm using two subjective standards: Myself and the Law. Both can be changed, but by living in society you have agreed to follow the law. Therefore stealing is legally wrong. At no point have I used an objective standards. Opinions don't need them.

1) If morality is really subjective, one would realize that actions which they think of as wrong are only their opinion.
Yes. They are just opinions. Which, as I've said, is why we have the law to form a consensus of opinions to decide upon a general ethical code we all must follow.

2) However,

nevermind - wife's water just broke - see ya in a few days....
Good luck with that, hope it all goes well. And congratulations :)
 
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DaisyDay

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It wouldn't matter too much if you did release it - most believers would simply continue to believe without thinking too much about it, the non-believers would be amazed at the believers and the denialists would start a witch hunt - imho.

Gradually, acceptance would set in for all but the most radical.
 
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lux et lex

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It's impossible to prove a negative.

What are you talking about? I could take a pregnancy test right now, it would come out negative, and I could go to my ob/gyn and they could verify via exam that I am indeed not pregnant. Is that not a negative that is proved?
 
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The Penitent Man

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What are you talking about? I could take a pregnancy test right now, it would come out negative, and I could go to my ob/gyn and they could verify via exam that I am indeed not pregnant. Is that not a negative that is proved?

That's different. Pregnancy is something of which you can have direct & intimate knowledge. The existence of an unborn child inside of you does not have to be taken on faith. It does not involve belief.
 
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