Oh for the love of... its not my beloved theory. Its the best explanation. Thats how I hold it. And even if it is wrong, it does NOT logically follow that YEC or even OEC is correct.You are typical of evolutionists generally. You are so certain that your beloved theory is correct that you have never even paid any attention to the many scientific claims made by those that reject the theory.
Also, yes I have. I have heard many. Most of them were unscientific nonsense, things that dont have anything to do with the validity of evolution, or things that were scientifically wrong. In some cases they filled more than one of the above categories.
Now.
It most absolutely does not show gradual change. It shows a long series of stable ecosystems, each of which suddenly appeared, flourished virtually unchanged for a very long time, and then suddenly disappeared, only to be equally suddenly replaced by a different stable ecosystem.
And you realize there have been, how many, six or seven massive extinctions? And how sudden is suddenly? Wikipedia says 5-20, and has a list of 7 with links to their individual pages, so Id guess those seven are accurate. Also, one of the big cited things, the cambrian explosion was no less than, oh, SIX MILLION YEARS.
Furthermore, what about things such as the horse, and the whale, and the many many other species that there are long lineages for? What about those? Do they just not exist? Even if, say, one form appeared per ecosystem, there is still a gradual change from ecosystem to ecosystem across time, is there not?
And by the way, they still happened before mankind, did they not? So even if it is the case that everything got completely 100% wiped off the face of the planet and miraculously replaced by God every time there was an extinction event, there was still death before mankind. So it still would need to be handwaved away for YEC and OEC to be right.
Pressure about this from creationists finally led to an imaginative solution from the evolutionist camp in the formulation of the theory of punctuated equilibrium. Without a shred of evidence to back it up except the assumption that evolution must have occurred, they concluded that an ecosystem evolves rapidly until it reaches a state of equilibrium, upon which it becomes stable until something disturbs that equilibrium. This was presented with the deeply scientific assumption of "some unknown force" as the disturbing factor!
Actually, punctuated equilibrium is NOT some unknown force causes rapid evolution, because, after all, evolution MUST occur as you seem to suggest.
Also, there is a HUGE difference between geological time and generation time. Im going to steal and example from wikipedia here.
wiki said:The relationship between punctuationism and gradualism can be better appreciated by considering an example. Suppose the average length of a limb in a particular species grows 50 centimeters (20 inches) over 70,000 yearsa large amount in a geologically short period of time. If the average generation is seven years, then our given time span corresponds to 10,000 generations. It is therefore reasonable to conclude that if the limb size in our hypothetical population evolved in the most conservative manner, it need only increase at a rate of 0.005[wash my mouth]cm per generation (= 50[wash my mouth]cm/10,000), despite its abrupt appearance in the geological record.
Punctuated equilibrium would be the result of allopatric and peripatric where there are complete isolations of populations as opposed to parapatric and sympatric where there is no such complete isolation. And several hundred or thousand generations is STILL several hundred or thousand generations to change, even if it is only several tens of thousands of years. And on a geologic timescale, that is a wink of an eye at best. But still hundreds or thousands of generations free to diverge with no intermingling. Furthermore, it does not deal with entire ecosystems, merely single species in isolation. Which we can actually demonstrate with fruit flies.
Vestigial != useless. Sorry. And some vestigial organs can be removed with little to no harm to the organism, even if they do serve a purpose. Case in point, appendix and wisdom teeth.When I was a student, there were many claims being made about how the presence of vestigial organs are evidence for evolution. But gradually, science began to discover actual uses for all these supposedly useless organs.
The theory that an embryo traces its evolutionary history as it develops was still being taught in the biology textbooks at that time, even though embryologists had realized it was incorrect. And as martheblake has pointed out, this is still being presented as evidence for evolution, even though it has been thoroughly discredited.
I believe you are referring to recapitulation theory, which is put forward by Haeckel.
Apparently Stephen J. Gould book out a book, Ontogeny and Phylogeny in 77 that spends half the book discussing recapitulation and how its been discredited and is no longer used. So go to the museum (Im not anywhere NEAR Sydney), go to the textbook peoples, and talk to them. But science doesnt use it anymore.
Oh really? REALLY? So there was never anything, not even one piece of evidence for evolution at ALL in the 60s? And have you paid attention to DNA (ervs and more), homologous structures, the discovery of such things as microraptor, tiktaalik, ambelocetus, and so on? Any of the testable evolutionary pathways for various features to form? Any of the gazillion fruit fly and bacteria experiments? Nylonase? Anything?Such is true of absolutely every item of evidence for evolution that was being presented in the 1960's and I am not aware of even one new piece of real evidence that has been presented since that time.
I am aware of many allegations about observations of evolution it action, but I have not seen even one such allegation that was not based on the comparatively recent redefinition of evolution as a change in the frequency of alleles in a population.
As opposed to what definition you have been using? And what about the rise of new species and such? If they CAN and DO arise, why couldnt they have in the past?
Maybe thats because it does?Using this definition, it is easy to demonstrate evolution in action.
What are you defining evolution as? I mean, youve just it it is easy to demonstrate evolution in action but this is based on the assumption that evolution is indeed a fact. If it can be demonstrated why does it need to be assumed? *facepalm*But this is based on an assumption that evolution is indeed a fact.
So antibiotic resistance is NOT beneficial to bacteria in a person taking antibiotics? So the ability to digest nylon does NOT benefit bacteria by opening up a new food source? So the gene that helps resist the bubonic plague current studies are showing are fairly widespread among Europeans and originates from the time the Black Death wiped out a third of Europe wasnt beneficial? And remember, it doesnt have to benefit the creature in every way ever for all time under ANY situation. For a mutation to be beneficial, it has to help the organism survive in its current environment.I have not personally studied every modern claim of having observed the rise of beneficial mutations, but at least most of these claims are known to be based in inferences, not on provable data.
Okay. Nylonase and antibiotic resistance. Done.But without ironclad proof that beneficial mutations actually exist, even the possibility of evolution being factual remains to be demonstrated.
Metherion
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