Hi. I'd like to know if you think that when the majority of "the world" (that is, a group of countries) has a stance on something, if we can reject it even though the "world" in the Bible is not necessarily the same thing "geographically," but metaphorically.
There is a political issue and I don't want to mention it because it would probably be more suitable on the OBOB Politics forum, but since I don't have an article, I'm just posing a general question.
My dad is complaining to me about a political issue (I don't feel like mentioning it because I'm not knowledgeable enough about it) in which the world is all against this one particular thing, and my dad is siding with the world, but I oppose what the world is saying. He tried to convince me that the world is correct, but I told him that "the world" is irrelevant to me (thinking, in my head, the "world" of the Bible).
However, can the notion of the "world" of the Bible be used to be against what the literal world (i.e. group of countries) stands for on certain issues?
There is a political issue and I don't want to mention it because it would probably be more suitable on the OBOB Politics forum, but since I don't have an article, I'm just posing a general question.
My dad is complaining to me about a political issue (I don't feel like mentioning it because I'm not knowledgeable enough about it) in which the world is all against this one particular thing, and my dad is siding with the world, but I oppose what the world is saying. He tried to convince me that the world is correct, but I told him that "the world" is irrelevant to me (thinking, in my head, the "world" of the Bible).
However, can the notion of the "world" of the Bible be used to be against what the literal world (i.e. group of countries) stands for on certain issues?