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If morality is subjective...

elman

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You said: :
You are assuming there´s an objective moral code somewhere out there. Now, does it help preventing those things that violate this assumed "objective" moral code? Quite obviously not - people still do what they subjectively find moral or what they subjectively think the "objective moral code" says. "
That seems to me to be saying an objective moral code would prevent people from violating that moral code. You are saying, are you not, that since people are violating that moral code it must mean there is no moral code? Is that not like saying there must not be any evil because people are chosing to do evil?

I said: "
As I understand your argument, there must not be any evil because some people chose to be evil."

You said:
The way things are and all the "evil" you complain about exists with this "objective moral code" you believe in, the same way it exists without it.

Are you not saying evil exists and would exist without an objective moral code?

I said
why would people chosing to torture babies prove there was no objective understanding that was the wrong thing to do? Why would you assume the objective moral code did not help prevent immoral actions and base that assumption on someone being immoral in spite of the moral code against it? How does evil exists without a moral code as you claim?



I do not claim that evil exists. I claim that the world is like it is. If someone detects "evil" in this world and at the same time believes that there exists an objective moral code, I conclude that the existence of this objective moral code doesn´t help preventing this "evil".
I know you do not claim torturing babies is evil. You say if I understand you that the torturors are doing the best they can in this life. You again seem to be saying here that if evil exists it proves there is no objective moral code or if there is an objective moral code, it obviously does not prevent or help prevent evil because evil is still here. Obviously you don't account for the possiblity that the objective moral code against torturing babies does not prevent all babies from being tortured but it still may prevent some babies from being tortured.
 
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quatona

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elman said:
You said: :
That seems to me to be saying an objective moral code would prevent people from violating that moral code.
No, this is not my idea. That an objective morality helps with getting rid of "evil", and that subjectivsm is an obstacle to this development is a common claim of objectivists, and has been explicitly and implicitly presented here. I am merely trying to show that this is an inaccurate claim.

You are saying, are you not, that since people are violating that moral code it must mean there is no moral code?
I am not saying this. I am saying that the assumption of an objective moral code makes no difference and doesn´t help with anything. It is irrelevant.

Is that not like saying there must not be any evil because people are chosing to do evil?
Yes, it is not like saying this.


Are you not saying evil exists and would exist without an objective moral code?
Yes, I am not saying this.





I know you do not claim torturing babies is evil. You say if I understand you that the torturors are doing the best they can in this life.
As much as I appreciate the fact that you recall things I have said earlier in other contexts :), and as much as I indeed hold this conviction - it was not part of my argumentation here, therefore I don´t see how it is relevant for discussing my argumentation.
You again seem to be saying here that if evil exists it proves there is no objective moral code or if there is an objective moral code,
Maybe I seem to be saying this, but I am not. I have now several times explicitly stated that I do not say this nor is my position, so I don´t see why you keep trying to ascribe it to me nonetheless.

it obviously does not prevent or help prevent evil because evil is still here. Obviously you don't account for the possiblity that the objective moral code against torturing babies does not prevent all babies from being tortured but it still may prevent some babies from being tortured.
I am open to consider this possibility if someone presents a good reason to do so. So far this has only come as an empty claim.
What however I time and again experience preventing torturing babies are a lot of subjective moral codes.
 
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elman

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quatona said:
No, this is not my idea. That an objective morality helps with getting rid of "evil", and that subjectivsm is an obstacle to this development is a common claim of objectivists, and has been explicitly and implicitly presented here. I am merely trying to show that this is an inaccurate claim.


I am not saying this. I am saying that the assumption of an objective moral code makes no difference and doesn´t help with anything. It is irrelevant.


Yes, it is not like saying this.



Yes, I am not saying this.






As much as I appreciate the fact that you recall things I have said earlier in other contexts :), and as much as I indeed hold this conviction - it was not part of my argumentation here, therefore I don´t see how it is relevant for discussing my argumentation.

Maybe I seem to be saying this, but I am not. I have now several times explicitly stated that I do not say this nor is my position, so I don´t see why you keep trying to ascribe it to me nonetheless.


I am open to consider this possibility if someone presents a good reason to do so. So far this has only come as an empty claim.
What however I time and again experience preventing torturing babies are a lot of subjective moral codes.
Where is your evidence that the objective moral code against torturing babies has had no effect on how many babies have been tortured? I would offer as evidence that some babies have been saved by pointing to people who have been convicted of doing so being put in prision and prevented from continuing to do so.
 
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quatona

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elman said:
Where is your evidence that the objective moral code against torturing babies has had no effect on how many babies have been tortured?
I have no evidence for that, and I haven´t claimed to have evidence.
I simply don´t accept hypothetical things as given, merely because there is no evidence for them not to exist. That would be having it backwards.

I would offer as evidence that some babies have been saved by pointing to people who have been convicted of doing so being put in prision and prevented from continuing to do so.
And what the heck would that have to do with objective morals rather than subjective morals of those who took those actions, or laws of the country?
Objective morals wouldn´t prevent anyone from doing anything, unless he subjectively accepts them. Whether someone holds moral ideas because he accepts a hypothetically existing "objective moral code", or simply because he subjectively thinks they are a good idea, has the same effect. The fact that someone acts according to what you assume to be an "objective moral code" does in no way point to this code existing somewhere out there. It just points to the fact that this person subjectively held this moral stance. Everything beyond that would require some sort of substantiation.
 
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Vedant

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alerj123 said:
This is kinda an interesting to say. Because what is the difference between "defining something differently" and it "just being different".

I define dinner as being the biggest meal of the day. That is simply how i have grown up. In other countries, however, while dinner is at the same time, lunch is usually the biggest meal of the day. Using my definition of the word, lunch should be their dinner. I think it would be fair to argue that my dinner and their dinner are different things. While it is equally fair to argue that the dinner's are the same thing, just differently defined.

The reason is that we are dealing with words, not real idea's. Yes, everyone agree's that murdering is bad, but not everyone agree's on its definition. That is competely equivalent to saying "yes, everone aggree's that murder is bad, but not everyone agree's on what IT MURDER IS". The definintion is what makes the word have meaning. If a word has a different definition, then it is, in effect, a different idea.

You can't say just because we all agree that this very vague word "murder" which has multiple meanings to multiple people and societies, then morality is objective.

Well semantics gets in the way of what I'm trying to describe by default. Visualize what murder is to you in your head, visualize what murder might be to another. The emotion and inherent wrongness that you and that other person feel towards these visualizations/thinking of murder is equivalent. That is you humanly sense the inherent wrongness of what murder is to you in the same way that someone else senses the inherent wrongness of what murder is to that person. That is what I mean by universally absolute for every sane and capable person.

Everything after that, semantics, definitions, and scenarios is all subjective to each individual based on his/her personal beliefs, experiences, and perceptions.
 
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Electric Skeptic

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Vedant said:
Well semantics gets in the way of what I'm trying to describe by default. Visualize what murder is to you in your head, visualize what murder might be to another. The emotion and inherent wrongness that you and that other person feel towards these visualizations/thinking of murder is equivalent. That is you humanly sense the inherent wrongness of what murder is to you in the same way that someone else senses the inherent wrongness of what murder is to that person. That is what I mean by universally absolute for every sane and capable person.
But many people DON'T sense "the inherent wrongness" of murder. They think murder - under some conditions - is fine. No doubt you'll reply that they're not sane and capable, but that just begs the question.
All you're doing is saying that murder is objectively immoral for every sane/capable person...and a sane/capable person is defined as someone for whom murder is immoral.
 
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quatona

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Electric Skeptic said:
But many people DON'T sense "the inherent wrongness" of murder. They think murder - under some conditions - is fine. No doubt you'll reply that they're not sane and capable, but that just begs the question.
All you're doing is saying that murder is objectively immoral for every sane/capable person...and a sane/capable person is defined as someone for whom murder is immoral.
Hi ES, if I may jump in: I think you are still missing Vedant´s point (or maybe I am the one missing it :confused:):
Nobody (not even "insane" persons) thinks murder is fine. That´s a contradiction in terms. They wouldn´t regard the action in question as "murder". "Murder" is a universal signifier for "that which the speaker regards wrong killing" (independently of how each individual fills this term with practical, concrete, meaning).
So saying "some people think murder is fine" would be about the same as saying "some people feel that doing the wrong thing is right". No, they wouldn´t think it´s wrong if they think it´s right, to begin with.;)
 
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elman

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quatona said:
I have no evidence for that, and I haven´t claimed to have evidence.
I simply don´t accept hypothetical things as given, merely because there is no evidence for them not to exist. That would be having it backwards.


And what the heck would that have to do with objective morals rather than subjective morals of those who took those actions, or laws of the country?
Objective morals wouldn´t prevent anyone from doing anything, unless he subjectively accepts them. Whether someone holds moral ideas because he accepts a hypothetically existing "objective moral code", or simply because he subjectively thinks they are a good idea, has the same effect. The fact that someone acts according to what you assume to be an "objective moral code" does in no way point to this code existing somewhere out there. It just points to the fact that this person subjectively held this moral stance. Everything beyond that would require some sort of substantiation.
It has to do with why the laws are there to prevent torturing babies, because everyone understands that is wrong-objective morality. Is there a country or culture that says it is alright to torture babies? I don't know of one. Seems to me that is some evidence.
 
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elman

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Dragar said:
But by sane and capable, you mean 'person who feels murder to be wrong', don't you?

Why, yes. Murder is felt to be wrong by every person who it is felt to be wrong by.
And if a person feels murder is not wrong they are insane or at least abnormal and not a normal member of any culture.
 
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Dragar

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And if a person feels murder is not wrong they are insane or at least abnormal and not a normal member of any culture.

By the way Vedant defined the words, all you're saying is a person who doesn't feel murder is wrong doesn't feel murder is wrong. Shock!

If you mean abnormal as in 'rare' then I'd agree with you. That doesn't really make a difference to the discussion though.
 
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elman

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Dragar said:
By the way you've defined the words, all you're saying is a person who doesn't feel murder is wrong doesn't feel murder is wrong. Shock!
No I haven't. I have said that someone who thinks murder is not wrong has displayed one of the symptoms of being mentaly defective. There would be other symtoms also.
 
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Fledge

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quatona said:
:confused:
Why would that follow? If the (subjective or supposedly objectve) moral code allows him to force others to follow his code, he will do it. The possibility exists.

Let me rephrase it again. If you freely acknowledge that your moral code is one that you came up with yourself, and that everybody else needs to make up their own moral code as well, then why the heck should I care what you have to say about morality? After all, it doesn't have any authority or effect on me. (Unless of course, you get it passed into law, or some other such thing. More on this below.)

Sorry, but this doesn´t make it much better.
Why should anyone care about the moral code of an objectivist?
If I have understood your explanation above correctly (I´m now doubting this again) you intended to ask for my reason as to why I, a subjectivist, care for someone else´s ideas - as opposed to why I think someone else "should" care for mine or someone else´s. So why the heck don´t you ask it that way?:confused:
My reasons to care for the ideas of a subjectivist aren´t any different from my reasons to care for those of an objectivist. Did you expect there to be a difference? This would explain the qualifier "of a subjectivist".

If a subjectivist is right about there being no moral code that governs all moral decisions, then it doesn't really matter too much what he thinks. If he's right, then I have absolutely nothing to gain by following his code. But if an objectivist is right, and there is a moral code that governs all moral decisions, then I had best get cracking on trying to find out what that code is. Of course, if you deny the idea of a final judgment (and judge), then this objective moral code would have to be assumed to be complete nonsense anyway. After all, if there's an absolute moral code, there has to be somebody or something to judge us all by it. If this entity is assumed to not exist, then the very idea of objective morality would automatically be comical. Is this perhaps where the biggest difference lies?

I have always wondered how objectivists discuss their controversial moral codes? I have never seen that happening, other than endlessly repeating throwing unsubstantiated truth claims at each other (and the subjectivists along with it). Interpretative debates are possible as long as both refer to the same literal (or whatever source). Whilst a Muslim will be unimpressed by bible-quotes or certain interpretations of them, simply because it is not his authoritative source. And vice versa.
I think Holy War and variations on it is one of the common methods. ;)

It depends on the company. You're right, a Muslim and a Christian would probably not discuss interpretative philosophy, and might end up in nothing more than a screaming match.

As somewhat of a sidenote, the concept of Holy War has never been used to "discuss" moral codes, at least in my knowledge. Such wars have been used to spread religious belief, and they have been used to attempt to remove a "pagan" group from a place of religious value, but never as a form of discussion. Could you refer me to the war you are thinking about?

elman said:
No I haven't. I have said that someone who thinks murder is not wrong has displayed one of the symptoms of being mentaly defective. There would be other symtoms also.

Um, elman, I have to disagree with you on this point. Until quite recently, the Sawi universally prized "talented" murderers, and I doubt that their mental capabilities are the reason.
 
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quatona

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elman said:
It has to do with why the laws are there to prevent torturing babies, because everyone understands that is wrong-objective morality. Is there a country or culture that says it is alright to torture babies? I don't know of one. Seems to me that is some evidence.

Ok , elman. If you want to define the Objectve Moral Code as that which everybody agrees upon, do it. I think it would be a confusing choice of term (but it´s just words, after all, so who cares), and I think it will be hard to find many actions the moral value of which everyone agrees upon (probably not even in the case of torturing babies. E.g. there are persons in my and your country who consider legal abortion torturing of babies. Go figure.).

Thus, if there is something that everybody agrees upon, for me you can call it Objective Moral Law I have no problem with this definition, but I am afraid you have inadvertantly shot your own foot here. If indeed this is a descriptive Law (describing that which everyone agrees upon) it doesn´t serve the purpose that - in my observation - you and other people (correct me if I´m wrong) want it to serve: a normative one.
If everyone agrees on the Objective Moral Law anyways, there is nothing to be worried about, to be concerned with, to discuss.
If I am not entirely mistaken the idea of an Objective Moral Code is to be able to discern right moral notions from wrong moral notions. In your definition the OMC doesn´t provide this possibility, because ideas violating the OMC do not even exist, by your very definition.
Let´s e.g. look at one of your pet examples for "evil", i.e. the violation of the OMC in your definition. (although you seem to prefer "torturing babies" for this as of lately): Hitler-Germany.
By your own definition the ideas of these people back than cannot have been "evil", because they weren´t against the OMC (i.e. that which everyone agrees upon, in your definition). There were plenty people who held these notions, after all, and there was a society and culture who said it was ok.
 
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quatona

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Fledge said:
Let me rephrase it again. If you freely acknowledge that your moral code is one that you came up with yourself, and that everybody else needs to make up their own moral code as well, then why the heck should I care what you have to say about morality? After all, it doesn't have any authority or effect on me. (Unless of course, you get it passed into law, or some other such thing. More on this below.)
I fail to see how the claim that the moral code someone holds is objective would have any more authority or effect on me. Everyone can claim that, after all, and many do.
You give me the idea that I just need to call myself an objectivist and my moral code objective, and it automatically is more considerable.
Fact is, subjectivists don´t have anymore reason to consider the moral codes of objectists authoritative than objectists have reason to do so in regards to the moral ideas of subjectists.
You have asked me, a subjectivist, after all, and that´s what you could have known I will tell you: Why the heck would I care if someone calls his subjective moral code objective?
What objectivists do with my moral ideas, is not my problem. They will probably disregard them for the reasons you are presenting here, but that is irrelevant for a subjectist like me, just as it is vice versa.
How objectists holding different subjective opinions as to what is objective deal with each other claims, is also none of my concern.





If a subjectivist is right about there being no moral code that governs all moral decisions, then it doesn't really matter too much what he thinks.
To whom? What an objectivist subjectively considers objective, matters just as little, if you ask me.
If he's right, then I have absolutely nothing to gain by following his code.
I wasn´t aware that the purpose of objective moral code was to gain something to the one holding it. But that´s interesting information!

But if an objectivist is right, and there is a moral code that governs all moral decisions, then I had best get cracking on trying to find out what that code is.
Why? What (if I may apply your own standards) would I gain from it?

Of course, if you deny the idea of a final judgment (and judge), then this objective moral code would have to be assumed to be complete nonsense anyway.
Yes, exactly. This makes your entire argumentation merely a variation on Pascal´s Wager.
Besides, in view of your opening question, you make it sound as if all objectivists were theists.
After all, if there's an absolute moral code, there has to be somebody or something to judge us all by it.
I fail to see how that follows.

If this entity is assumed to not exist, then the very idea of objective morality would automatically be comical.
Again I fail to see how that follows. Gravity is an agreed upon objective law, and the absence of someone enforcing it by threat of punishment is in no way comical.
Your idea that people only can be kept in line if punishment is threatened to be inflicted on them, seems to tell me more about you than about anything else.

Is this perhaps where the biggest difference lies?
I don´t know. I just know that you have completely changed your point and argumentation.
Your question, as of now, seems to be:
"Why would someone who believes in a punishing God care about the morals of someone who does not believe in this God?"
He probably won´t, but you would have to ask that the objectivists rather than the subjectivists. What do I know about the mindset of objectivists, after all?



As somewhat of a sidenote, the concept of Holy War has never been used to "discuss" moral codes, at least in my knowledge. Such wars have been used to spread religious belief, and they have been used to attempt to remove a "pagan" group from a place of religious value, but never as a form of discussion. Could you refer me to the war you are thinking about?
Yes, you are absolutely right, of course. Wars are never a form of discussion. I thought this was obvious to everyone so I felt it was no problem to use this facetious and very loose definition of discussion. Of course I meant something to the effect "Holy Wars and more or less violent variations on them are a common replacement of moral discussions among objectivists".
Sorry if that has lead to misunderstandings, or if you perceived this wording as inappropriate or offensive. I thought it was sort of funny. Blame it on my poor taste in matters of humour. I now wish I had been more clear.
 
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Fledge

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quatona said:
I fail to see how the claim that the moral code someone holds is objective would have any more authority or effect on me. Everyone can claim that, after all, and many do.
You give me the idea that I just need to call myself an objectivist and my moral code objective, and it automatically is more considerable.
Fact is, subjectivists don´t have anymore reason to consider the moral codes of objectists authoritative than objectists have reason to do so in regards to the moral ideas of subjectists.
You have asked me, a subjectivist, after all, and that´s what you could have known I will tell you: Why the heck would I care if someone calls his subjective moral code objective?
What objectivists do with my moral ideas, is not my problem. They will probably disregard them for the reasons you are presenting here, but that is irrelevant for a subjectist like me, just as it is vice versa.
How objectists holding different subjective opinions as to what is objective deal with each other claims, is also none of my concern.

Isn't it ironic? We're both speaking English, and yet it seems almost as if we're speaking different languages...

To whom? What an objectivist subjectively considers objective, matters just as little, if you ask me.

I'm going to try one more time. Whether subjectivism is the "right" or "wrong" way of looking at morality is completely beside the point. As has been stated on this thread numerous times, there is no particular reason for me to care what a subjectivist has to say about morality, other than in how it directly impacts me.

This was the primary thrust of my original question, and nobody has bothered to seriously argue that I should pay any attention to a subjectivist's moral code.

I wasn´t aware that the purpose of objective moral code was to gain something to the one holding it. But that´s interesting information!

You're misinterpreting what I said.

Why? What (if I may apply your own standards) would I gain from it?

Yes, exactly. This makes your entire argumentation merely a variation on Pascal´s Wager.
Besides, in view of your opening question, you make it sound as if all objectivists were theists.

Again I fail to see how that follows. Gravity is an agreed upon objective law, and the absence of someone enforcing it by threat of punishment is in no way comical.
Your idea that people only can be kept in line if punishment is threatened to be inflicted on them, seems to tell me more about you than about anything else.

Think about a football game. Now obviously, football games have certain rules, and set starting and ending points. But suppose you took away the ending point, and made it so that the game would last for an infinite period of time. All of a sudden, there's no point in keeping score, and there's no such thing as winners and losers, because there's never any reckoning of any point. The stated goal of the game, to score more points than the other team, has just been rendered null and void.

With morality, either there is a reckoning at some point, or there is not. If there is never any form of reckoning, than we can do anything we want, because we will never be called to account for anything. If there is some form of reckoning, then there must be some standard for us to be judged on.

I fell out of a tree once, and so I can confidently tell you that falling is perfectly painless. The kicker is when you hit the ground at the bottom. The consequences of attempting to violate the law of gravity would be nonexistent if we never landed, and gravity would be a largely meaningless law.

And in case you're wondering, it's not "[my] idea that people only can be kept in line if punishment is threatened to be inflicted on them". It's a fact of life that actions have consequences. If you pull a trigger, a bullet is sent out of the barrel of the gun. If you jump out of a window, you fall and hit the ground. If you are constantly seeking to serve others, you will (probably) be loved. Consequences are either good or bad, but the idea of an action having no effect is supported nowhere in the natural world, and I for one fail to see where you have come up with it. As any physicist can tell you, the simple act of observation can completely change the object being observed. Actions have consequences. (And for the record, it is at least theoretically possible to keep people in line without any need for punishment or its threat.)

I don´t know. I just know that you have completely changed your point and argumentation.
Your question, as of now, seems to be:
"Why would someone who believes in a punishing God care about the morals of someone who does not believe in this God?"
He probably won´t, but you would have to ask that the objectivists rather than the subjectivists. What do I know about the mindset of objectivists, after all?

No, I have simply tried to explain, and you have pretty consistently failed to understand. Once it gets to the point where I feel like it's a complete waste of my time to respond, then I'll stop doing so. Given the consistency with which we've managed to fail to understand each other, that point is probably going to be coming up very soon. I hope that it doesn't, but it's not a possibility that can be discounted.
 
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quatona

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Fledge said:
Isn't it ironic? We're both speaking English, and yet it seems almost as if we're speaking different languages...
Yes, that´s puzzling and regrettable, but it happens all the time.
In this particular case the fact that I am not a native English speaker might contribute to the problem.

I'm going to try one more time. Whether subjectivism is the "right" or "wrong" way of looking at morality is completely beside the point.
I agree. That´s why I haven´t made any statement concerning this question.

As has been stated on this thread numerous times, there is no particular reason for me to care what a subjectivist has to say about morality, other than in how it directly impacts me
If you see no reason, that´s fine with me. Nobody can make anyone find things reasonable, after all.
Why do people care about the opinions of others, why do they communicate? Does this really need to be explained?
I communicate and care about others´ opinions, because I am interested in them, and because exchange of opinions helps me finding the most reasonable, plausible position.
People´s explanation about their opinions either makes those opinions plausible to me or it doesn´t. Whether the person who expresses this opinion believes that an objective morality exists (objecivist) or not (subjectivist), doesn´t change anything about this plausibility.
If you are not interested in people´s moral opinions unless they claim them to be objective, be my guest. I have no clue, though, why anyone would follow this axiom, and I really would like to see it explained.ly point out why there is a difference between paying attention to what an o pay a

Once again: I am surprised that you don´t see the paradoxy you have created. You inform the subjectivists that you don´t see any reason to pay attention to what they have to say concerning morals, and in the next moment you ask those very subjectivists a moral question („why should I...?“). So you ask me a question, informing me that you won´t pay attention to my answer and/or will disregard it right away. I simply don´t get it.


This was the primary thrust of my original question, and nobody has bothered to seriously argue that I should pay any attention to a subjectivist's moral code.
Maybe because nobody has understood why you think you shouldn´t.
Although it may be true that noone has explained why you „should“ do this, there were numerous explanations why one could care about what someone else (and there is no difference whether any of the persons involved and who of them is an objectivist or a subjectivist) has to say about morality, the main reason being: Because one might be interested in pragmatically coming to societal rules, coming closer to peaceful and well organized coexistence.
If that is not sufficient reason for you, that merely tells me something about your interests and desires - things that I am not in the position to discuss.
Other answers were: You have no reason why you „should“ care about those opinions, unless the answers make sense to you. Finding out whether what they say makes sense to you first requires you to pay attention to what people say.


You're misinterpreting what I said.
In order to keep avoiding insinuations of intentions and motives, let´s keep to the wording „misunderstanding“, ok?
How exactly did the quoted passage not say what I understood it to say? Which implications have I interpreted into it rather than out of it?
Do I understand you correctly: You don´t think that the idea of objective morals is about what you can gain? Then why have you mentioned this criterium as if it were of relevance?

tbc.
 
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quatona

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Think about a football game. Now obviously, football games have certain rules, and set starting and ending points. But suppose you took away the ending point, and made it so that the game would last for an infinite period of time. All of a sudden, there's no point in keeping score, and there's no such thing as winners and losers, because there's never any reckoning of any point. The stated goal of the game, to score more points than the other team, has just been rendered null and void.
Good example.
I may be mistaken about how game rules come into existence, but in my naivity I think it happens in a conference of persons who have subjective opinions as to what would make that game attractive, and they exchange those subjective opinions and try to come to an agreement. In order to come to an agreement, they would have to listen to each other. And there it is, the reason: Else there wouldn´t be any agreed upon rules to play by, to begin with.
Because persons who want to play a game usually see the benefits that come from having rules in games (I mean – by what would a game be defined if not its rules?) they accept those rules, and don´t have any problems with the fact that they are not at all objective, but completely subjective, even by and large arbitrarily set up.
As opposed to games – in which the players usually accept the rules instead of discussing them - , life is not something we have decided to play after being informed about the arbitrarily set up rules, and one might also argue that we haven´t yet established that life is about winning and losing. With a game, if you don´t like the rules, you can simply play a different game or none at all.
I am inclined to think that that´s the reason why – when it comes to life - we find ourselves being both the players and the ones discussing the rules.


With morality, either there is a reckoning at some point, or there is not. If there is never any form of reckoning, than we can do anything we want, because we will never be called to account for anything. If there is some form of reckoning, then there must be some standard for us to be judged on.
(For the record: I don´t see how this is necessary. If you touch a hot plate, you will burn your fingers. No reckoning, no judging, no punishment - just the consequences. If morality is a law in the same way gravity is - as I understand you argumenting further down -, this would be all there is to it, and it would be effective. But for the time being I will accept your axiom that there needs to be some sort of reckoning, for the sake of the argument.)
I get the impression that you make more of the concept „subjectivism“ than there actually is to it. Subjectivism is not anarchism. Subjectivism does not postulate that there may not be any rules. Subjectivism does not postulate that existing rules are to be broken. Subjectivism does not postulate that there may not be reckoning.
Subjectivism merely acknowledges that, like in the football example, rules are not existing „objectively“ somewhere out there (and merely have to be sort of found or detected), but are necessarily the product of agreement between persons (in which „agreement“ can also mean „by arbitrary decree of the most powerful, with the powerless – due to their lack of power - having to accept them“), none of which can claim to be in hold of the objectively right/good solution.
I fell out of a tree once, and so I can confidently tell you that falling is perfectly painless. The kicker is when you hit the ground at the bottom. The consequences of attempting to violate the law of gravity would be nonexistent if we never landed, and gravity would be a largely meaningless law.
Yet, it is no prescriptive. We cannot conclude that falling of a tree is „wrong“. We can conclude that falling of a tree is not a good idea, in case you don´t want to get hurt.
Unlike with the undesirability of the consequences of falling off a tree, people often disagree in what of the consequences of a certain behaviour is desirable. They don´t deny the consequences themselves.

The point: The law of gravity cannot be violated (that´s the very nature of a descriptive rule), whilst moral laws can (and that´s the very nature of prescriptive rules).


And in case you're wondering, it's not "[my] idea that people only can be kept in line if punishment is threatened to be inflicted on them". It's a fact of life that actions have consequences. If you pull a trigger, a bullet is sent out of the barrel of the gun. If you jump out of a window, you fall and hit the ground. If you are constantly seeking to serve others, you will (probably) be loved. Consequences are either good or bad, but the idea of an action having no effect is supported nowhere in the natural world, and I for one fail to see where you have come up with it. As any physicist can tell you, the simple act of observation can completely change the object being observed. Actions have consequences. (And for the record, it is at least theoretically possible to keep people in line without any need for punishment or its threat.)
Ok, sorry for misunderstanding the punishment part.
However, we are back at the problem that you make „subjectivism“ something it isn´t. Subjectivism doesn´t deny actions to have consequences. Subjectivism merely acknowledges that different people value those consequences differently.
Sure, there are instances in which people even disagree on what the consequences of an action are (btw. something that objectivists and subjectivists have in common). That makes this problem subjective on just another level.
Add to that the problem that our world is not monocausal. One event cannot be traced down to be the effect of one single event as a „cause“, and any event/action has a multitude of effects. So other points in which people often disagree are:
-which of those multiple consequences they emphasize,
-at which point in time they look at the result,
-which of the multiple causes they regard most relevant
etc.

A fact that subjectivists acknowledge. They also acknowledge that any opinion we hold or hear is subjective. They do not necessarily desire this fact, they just acknowledge it and its consequences (!).

Shooting someone is likely gonna kill him. This consequence is acknowledged by objectivists and subjectivists alike. Just like with gravity we can derive conditional prescriptive rules from this: „In case you don´t accept killing others as an acceptable means of human interaction, it´s a not a good idea to shoot at them.“ But this is not a normative statement, it´s just a conditional (i.e. already presupposing a certain normative axiom to be accepted) prescriptive rule derived from the acknowledged consequences, similar to the conditional prescriptive rule derived from gravity: „If you don´t want to get hurt, make sure you don´t fall of a tree.“
A normative rule (i.e. the prescriptive rule itself) would be something like „It´s evil to fall off trees“, „It´s evil to kill humans.“ This has nothing to do with acknowledging the consequences, it has to do with valuating them, in both cases.

Another point: In view of the fact that all opinions are subjective and (if an objective morality would exist somewhere out there) a subjective opinion might be coincidentally congruent with this assumed objective morality, I fail to see how an objectivist would disgregard the possibility that a subjectivist´s opinion might be congruent with this OM, even if the person holding it doesn´t claim it to be objective.

For example, I personally and subjectively think that killing other humans (and other sentient beings) is never ever a good idea. This my stance is either congruent with an hypothetically assumed OM or it isn´t. Whether I sell it as subjective or objective wouldn´t change anything about this congruence/non-congruence.
Likewise, after discussing this my opinion with me, it will either be plausible and reasonable to you or it won´t. I don´t see how its plausibility to you would in any way depend on whether I present it as subjective or objective. In any case, you would first have to pay attention in order to even only take notice of it and consider its plausibility.




No, I have simply tried to explain, and you have pretty consistently failed to understand.
That´s regrettable, and there are several reasons thinkeable for „failing communication“ (which would be the wording of my (subjective ;) ) choice, because it is neutral and doesn´t try to put the blame or fault on one of the participants). E.g.. another wording for your above sentence would be: „You (quatona) have simply tried to understand, and I (Fledge) have pretty consistently failed to explain.“ ;)
Further possiblities: You (Fledge) have explained your idea greatly, and I have understood what you were trying to say perfectly, and still we disagree. Either because your ideas are logically inconsistent/pointless, or because mine are (or both), or simply because we are working from different axioms. Or one of us (or both) is/are applying an unusual terminology. Or....

Whatever, when two people miscommunicate, it´s safe to say that it is likely to frustrate both of them alike, and that accomplishing a clarification asks patience from both of them alike.
Once it gets to the point where I feel like it's a complete waste of my time to respond, then I'll stop doing so.
That sounds perfectly reasonable to me. (I am aware that my opinion counts zero for you because I don´t claim it to be objective, but, well, I´m just doing my part of the conversation).
Given the consistency with which we've managed to fail to understand each other, that point is probably going to be coming up very soon. I hope that it doesn't, but it's not a possibility that can be discounted.
I can empathize with your frustration.
Yes, there are moments in which we feel helpless to an extent that makes continuing what we are trying to do appear to be pointless, and in which we can´t think of a new and different approach. As soon as that´s the case with you, that will be entirely your decision, which I will have to and will respect, but I don´t see how I am the one who could possibly do anything about these your feelings and emotions.
Likewise, I, too, might at one point of time be frustrated to a degree that makes me unwilling to continue the discussion.
These are valid option to the both of us, and in my (unfortunately merely subjective, therefore completely neglectible ;)) opinion I used to feel they even went without mentioning.
Since you are frustrated with me misunderstanding you, please allow me this suggestion: Give me some of your reasons why anyone "should" listen to/pay attention to/care about the moral code of anyone at all. This might help me to get an idea
1. what sort of answer you are looking for and what criteria you are applying when it comes to deciding whether to care or not to care about people´s moral codes,
2. why you think there is no reason to care about the moral code of subjectivists, as opposed to those of objectivists.



Greetings
quatona
 
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Fledge

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quatona said:
If you see no reason, that´s fine with me. Nobody can make anyone find things reasonable, after all.
Why do people care about the opinions of others, why do they communicate? Does this really need to be explained?
I communicate and care about others´ opinions, because I am interested in them, and because exchange of opinions helps me finding the most reasonable, plausible position.
People´s explanation about their opinions either makes those opinions plausible to me or it doesn´t. Whether the person who expresses this opinion believes that an objective morality exists (objecivist) or not (subjectivist), doesn´t change anything about this plausibility.

So far, we are in agreement... :)

If you are not interested in people´s moral opinions unless they claim them to be objective, be my guest. I have no clue, though, why anyone would follow this axiom, and I really would like to see it explained.ly point out why there is a difference between paying attention to what an o pay a

This is an idea that I have not tried to defend, largely due to the fact that it is indefensible. If I have given you the idea that I personally see no reason to listen to what a subjectivist has to say about morality, then I apologize. I tried to make it clear in an earlier post that I do think it worth my time to at least listen to what you have to say, and then judge it on its own merits. It appears that I have failed to make that clear :(

Once again: I am surprised that you don´t see the paradoxy you have created. You inform the subjectivists that you don´t see any reason to pay attention to what they have to say concerning morals, and in the next moment you ask those very subjectivists a moral question („why should I...?“). So you ask me a question, informing me that you won´t pay attention to my answer and/or will disregard it right away. I simply don´t get it.

I asked the original question because I saw an apparent paradox. It seemed to me that subjectivists were almost deliberately marginalizing themselves by stating that their opinions have no more weight than personal preferences (favorite foods, for example). In the past, when I've thought I've seen a paradox involved in a viewpoint I disagreed with, I've asked a question and found out that there is a reasonable way around that paradox. So far, I haven't seen anyone try to explain this apparent paradox away, and that has puzzled me.

Admittedly, if you think that whatever people have to say on morality carries no weight beyond personal preferences, then there is a large paradigm shift. All of a sudden, there is a group of people trying to claim special precedence for their moral opinions. However, I'm still wondering if there's any way for a subjectivist to explain this apparent paradox to this poor objectivist who still doesn't get it.

In order to keep avoiding insinuations of intentions and motives, let´s keep to the wording „misunderstanding“, ok?

How exactly did the quoted passage not say what I understood it to say? Which implications have I interpreted into it rather than out of it?
Do I understand you correctly: You don´t think that the idea of objective morals is about what you can gain? Then why have you mentioned this criterium as if it were of relevance?

My exact wording was "If [the subjectivist is] right, then I have absolutely nothing to gain by following his code." This statement was made in an attempt to describe this apparent paradox, and was not intended as a commentary on objectivism in anyway. That is why I said "misinterpreting" instead of "misunderstanding", but as you suggest, I will use the less accusatory form in the future.

Good example.
I may be mistaken about how game rules come into existence, but in my naivity I think it happens in a conference of persons who have subjective opinions as to what would make that game attractive, and they exchange those subjective opinions and try to come to an agreement. In order to come to an agreement, they would have to listen to each other. And there it is, the reason: Else there wouldn´t be any agreed upon rules to play by, to begin with.
Because persons who want to play a game usually see the benefits that come from having rules in games (I mean – by what would a game be defined if not its rules?) they accept those rules, and don´t have any problems with the fact that they are not at all objective, but completely subjective, even by and large arbitrarily set up.
As opposed to games – in which the players usually accept the rules instead of discussing them - , life is not something we have decided to play after being informed about the arbitrarily set up rules, and one might also argue that we haven´t yet established that life is about winning and losing. With a game, if you don´t like the rules, you can simply play a different game or none at all.
I am inclined to think that that´s the reason why – when it comes to life - we find ourselves being both the players and the ones discussing the rules.

The thing about learning the rules of a game is that there are two ways to do so. One way is to watch it a lot, and learn the rules that way, and the other way is to sit down and read the rule book. Assuming the rules have already been made by the time I start to play (as opposed to a game I'm inventing), then the rules are what they are, and I either abide by them or suffer the consequences. Of course, with sports, the rules will shift over time, and what was once legal may become illegal, and what was once illegal may become legal, but I'm still forced to play by the rules.

To connect the dots, I can either take my moral code solely from what I see around me, or I can find where it's all written down and read that (I know, there are multiple sources that claim to have the objective moral code). Now there are some dangers to learning my code solely from watching other people. I know that I've never seen someone learn all the rules of a game simply from watching. Usually, there is a misunderstanding or two, and sometimes some misconceptions that are exactly contrary to the truth. Ditto for morality. Even if we watch people who follow the rules perfectly, there's still plenty of room for us to misinterpret what we see. Of course, the weakness of reading the book and never taking a look at people actually playing the game is that we really need to see examples played out before we fully understand them.

(For the record: I don´t see how this is necessary. If you touch a hot plate, you will burn your fingers. No reckoning, no judging, no punishment - just the consequences. If morality is a law in the same way gravity is - as I understand you argumenting further down -, this would be all there is to it, and it would be effective. But for the time being I will accept your axiom that there needs to be some sort of reckoning, for the sake of the argument.)
I get the impression that you make more of the concept „subjectivism“ than there actually is to it. Subjectivism is not anarchism. Subjectivism does not postulate that there may not be any rules. Subjectivism does not postulate that existing rules are to be broken. Subjectivism does not postulate that there may not be reckoning.
Subjectivism merely acknowledges that, like in the football example, rules are not existing „objectively“ somewhere out there (and merely have to be sort of found or detected), but are necessarily the product of agreement between persons (in which „agreement“ can also mean „by arbitrary decree of the most powerful, with the powerless – due to their lack of power - having to accept them“), none of which can claim to be in hold of the objectively right/good solution.

The point: The law of gravity cannot be violated (that´s the very nature of a descriptive rule), whilst moral laws can (and that´s the very nature of prescriptive rules).

After reading your description, I think that you are right that I have been reading a bit more into subjectivism than is actually there. However, I think that the gravity analogy is rather better than the hot-plate one. If I'd fallen from 20,000 feet instead of just 20, I would have had an extended period of time in which my attempt to violate the law of gravity would have absolutely no consequences. The consequences would have been there all the same, but they would have been extensively delayed. In a similiar fashion, moral laws might well be equally descriptive as physical laws like gravity, only with a larger time-delay on the consequences.

That´s regrettable, and there are several reasons thinkeable for „failing communication“ (which would be the wording of my (subjective ;) ) choice, because it is neutral and doesn´t try to put the blame or fault on one of the participants). E.g.. another wording for your above sentence would be: „You (quatona) have simply tried to understand, and I (Fledge) have pretty consistently failed to explain.“ ;)
Further possiblities: You (Fledge) have explained your idea greatly, and I have understood what you were trying to say perfectly, and still we disagree. Either because your ideas are logically inconsistent/pointless, or because mine are (or both), or simply because we are working from different axioms. Or one of us (or both) is/are applying an unusual terminology. Or....

Whatever, when two people miscommunicate, it´s safe to say that it is likely to frustrate both of them alike, and that accomplishing a clarification asks patience from both of them alike.

(And the justly chastened Fledge returns to his nest for awhile :blush:)

Since you are frustrated with me misunderstanding you, please allow me this suggestion: Give me some of your reasons why anyone "should" listen to/pay attention to/care about the moral code of anyone at all. This might help me to get an idea
1. what sort of answer you are looking for and what criteria you are applying when it comes to deciding whether to care or not to care about people´s moral codes,
2. why you think there is no reason to care about the moral code of subjectivists, as opposed to those of objectivists.

I think I've already explained #2, so I'll see what I can do about #1.

Morality is an important issue. Obviously, people act on what they believe, and so morality effectively dictates the course of human history. Hence, it is important to discuss morality, as your moral code and mine are both going to have some kind of impact (however large or small) on everyone who lives after us.

The other major reason why I think it is important to discuss morality is because I think that there is an objective moral code, and that people will ultimately be judged according to it. I view perfect adherence to this code as an unnatainable goal, but one that I need to strive for regardless of how badly I fall short (God's grace/mercy/forgiveness is the only thing that can make up for my deficiencies). Since this final judgment dictates the eternal fate of everyone, I obviously think that it is important to discuss the code that will be used in it...

Fledge
 
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elman

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quatona]Ok , elman. If you want to define the Objectve Moral Code as that which everybody agrees upon, do it. I think it would be a confusing choice of term (but it´s just words, after all, so who cares), and I think it will be hard to find many actions the moral value of which everyone agrees upon (probably not even in the case of torturing babies. E.g. there are persons in my and your country who consider legal abortion torturing of babies. Go figure.).
Your example is not an example of someone that believes it is alright to torture babies.

Thus, if there is something that everybody agrees upon, for me you can call it Objective Moral Law I have no problem with this definition, but I am afraid you have inadvertantly shot your own foot here. If indeed this is a descriptive Law (describing that which everyone agrees upon) it doesn´t serve the purpose that - in my observation - you and other people (correct me if I´m wrong) want it to serve: a normative one.
If everyone agrees on the Objective Moral Law anyways, there is nothing to be worried about, to be concerned with, to discuss.

The point is not that everyone agrees. The point is that everyone agrees without having to discuss it. They know it inately. They did not have to be edcated on it as children. The agreement is the evidence of the existence of objective morality. You correct in it need not be discussed because as human beings we know we should not torture babies without discussing it.

If I am not entirely mistaken the idea of an Objective Moral Code is to be able to discern right moral notions from wrong moral notions. In your definition the OMC doesn´t provide this possibility, because ideas violating the OMC do not even exist, by your very definition.
The do exist in that moral codes are simply codes. Human violate moral codes all the time.

Let´s e.g. look at one of your pet examples for "evil", i.e. the violation of the OMC in your definition. (although you seem to prefer "torturing babies" for this as of lately): Hitler-Germany.
By your own definition the ideas of these people back than cannot have been "evil", because they weren´t against the OMC (i.e. that which everyone agrees upon, in your definition). There were plenty people who held these notions, after all, and there was a society and culture who said it was ok.
People being willing to violate the moral codes of humans does not prove the code does not exist. I have always agreed that we can train ourselves and our children to be monsters. We can become monsters and convince ourselves it is a good thing. We can train our consciences. That does not make it a good thing and that does not mean there was no moral code before we trained ourselves out of it. Would there be any suicide bombers if there was no culture pressure in favor of it?
 
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