Well, I think that's the first time I've seen that fabrication!
How you got she wouldn't have obeyd an of the laws of the day from, "if Mary was sinless" is quite beyond any right use of logic and reason I have any familiarity with.
It is a wrong use of logic and reason.
It is a
LOGICAL FALLACY - NON - SEQUITUR, one of the most blatant I have ever seen in threads here in GT.
The conclusion does not follow the premise. . it is logcally invalid.
Sorry, but saying that she would not have obeyed the laws of the day if she was sinless is pure fantasy on your part.
A conclusion of a logical fallacy is also
logically false.
Your argument is also another
LOGICAL FALLACY - STRAWMAN
You simply errected a false argument, your own strawman, one that is easy to attack and defeat, and then attacked it. . . That's all strawman arguments are.
I see lots of straw flying around, not much else . . . .
Again, more straw . . . .
Your argument also engages in another
LOGICAL FALLACY - assumes facts not in evidence.
You just defeated your own argument. Attacking strawmen can result in fatal injuries when one gets too carried away. . . ..
If Jesus, being sinless, had to follow the law, then so did Mary, and sinlessness didn't enter into it at all.
Jesus had to keep the whole law of Moses, not just the 10 Commandments, and He had to offer sacrifices as was required of every Jew, or He would have been in violation of the Law of Moses and would have then been guilty of sin.
Your argument just fell totally apart.
LOLOL . .
LOGICAL FALLACY - assumes facts not in evidence. Sorry, but you have provided not one shred of evidence that Mary was any different than Jesus or did not have to obey the Law of Moses.
I don't know where you are getting your ideas and information from, but your soure of information is obviousy flawed.
Two totally different issues being treated as one and the same.
One is the fabrictaed issue that she didn't keep the Law of Moses for which no evidence is presetend to back up such an outlandish claim . . A total and comlete fabricaiton in which your own argument regarding Jesus defeated your own argument regarding Mary . I don't believe I have seen quite the like of this before here in GT.
The other is her sinlessness, and a
FALSE requirement/expectation that if she were sinlesss, that the bible would explicitly tell us this.
But this is nothing more than a clear double standard, for, in order to post in this section of CF, one must believe in the Trinity.
Yet the bible never explicitly states that the Holy Spirit is
- co-equal with the Father and the Son,
- co-eternal with the Father and the Son
- co-pre-existing with the Father and the Son
Yet by posting in this section of CF you are proclaiming to us all that you believe something that is not explicitly stated in the bible.
So, since it is obvious you believe something not explicitly stated in the bible, ie it is only alluded to in the bible, it is a double standard if you require that our belief regarding Mary's sinlessness be explicitly stated in the bible.
Such a requirement is obviously logically invalid on its face
and needs no further answer.
It is hypocritical to require of Catholics when one believes these things about the Holy Spirit
absent the
same type of evidence for it in the bible.
Peace