zippy2006
Dragonsworn
- Nov 9, 2013
- 7,640
- 3,846
- Country
- United States
- Gender
- Male
- Faith
- Catholic
- Marital Status
- Single
Go back and read post #28. I said there is no absolute free will. But because of how the brain works, we have relative free will. It's free will for practical intents and purposes.
Right, but what is that even supposed to mean? What does it mean to say that we don't have absolute free will but we have free will for practical intents and purposes? I've seen a lot of discussions surrounding free will, and I find that language to be common and also to be a smokescreen for the idea that free will just doesn't exist.
I did read that post, I suppose I just haven't pointed out the entailment:
I am a determinist in that if our brains are in exactly the same state at 2 different times, we will make exactly the same decision both times.
That's a denial of free will, plain and simple. It is determinism where our choices are reduced to and determined by physical brain states. We had no choice in the matter of the brain state that determined our action, or the brain state that determined that brain state, etc. There is no middle ground to be had here.
The chance that a physiologically normal brain will be in exactly the same state at 2 different times is vanishingly low.
This is logically irrelevant with respect to free will. If a brain state were repeated, the action would be repeated, but both actions are fully determined whether or not a repetition occurs. Focusing on the probability of actual repetition is a mistake.
(That's how I read your earlier post, and each of my subsequent posts carried with them the implied possibility that you might give an explanation how one can have a kind of partial free will. If you are able to do that then of course my parallels would fail.)
I made a value judgement that a naturalistic worldview is superior to, and more useful than believing in supernatural entities. But I did not make any such judgement about the presence or absence of free will. What I said in the OP was that there are Bible passages stating that God is all-sovereign and that those who come to Jesus have been selected by God. And I quoted verses to support that. To save time, I'll repeat 2 passages from John:
No one can come to me unless the Father who sent me draws him. And I will raise him up on the last day. John 6:44
And he said, “This is why I told you that no one can come to me unless it is granted him by the Father.” John 6:65
Yes, but I really think Silmarien's first point is apt. Personally I would phrase it this way: the Calvinist compatibilist has precisely the same avenues of argument open to them that the naturalist compatibilist has, and it seems that you are a naturalist compatibilist.
How else would you interpret this language? These and other verses imply that God decides who will accept Jesus as savior. This makes sense if God is indeed sovereign in all things. What would not make sense is if such an all-sovereign God allowed everyone to decide completely on their own whether to follow Jesus.
I would be happy to try to give a Catholic (Thomistic) perspective, but I want to finish our discussion related to compatibilism first.
So to answer your question from that perspective the Calvinist might say that the Father's drawing is the necessary prerequisite for conversion, but this is just like the fact that certain brain states are the necessary prerequisite for certain actions. The Father's drawing and the brain state are outside of our control, but somehow we still have a "relative" free will because the brain and God's drawing are so mysterious and complicated.
(If someone is comfortable with philosophical compatibilism, I'm not sure why they would have an issue with Calvinism.)
Upvote
0