This is what makes sense to me:the parable of the wheat and the tares seems to suggest a future close of the age - as the tares were not removed from the kingdom in 66-70 AD. The kingdom could not in this case be heaven, as the tares would not be in heaven, so Jesus must have meant that the kingdom is the earth, from where the tares and all that causes offence is removed, before the wheat is gathered into the barn -
Matthew 24 is all about 70 AD. the kingdom arrived in various ways - one was Pentecost, another was the fulfillment of the law.
-------->Note that Jesus, the messiah, fulfills a divine function in judging the world (13:41; see also 24:31). Perhaps the best biblical argument for Jesus’ divinity is not his use of titles like Son o Man, nor messiah (the term used of kings of Israel in OT times) nor even his repeated use of “I am” in John. It is, as N. T. Wright suggests, that Jesus does all the things that had previously been reserved in Judaism for God. (See Wright’s The Meaning of Jesus, chapter 10.)~http://www.pas.rochester.edu/~tim/study/WeedyQuestions.pdf
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