Hypothetical Question about Divorce

[RadixLecti]

I tend to be very partial to Roman Catholic social teachings, so I thought I would ask this question here.

Here is a completely hypothetical question that I have about divorce and remarriage:

If Bob and Jane are married, but then Jane divorces Bob (not for adultery) and marries someone else, is it a sin for Bob to remarry now that Jane has married someone else?

I think that the only justification given by Christ for divorce is adultery, so in this case would Jane be said to have committed adultery by marrying someone else? Would that then free Bob to remarry?

 

[Foundthelight]

Was the first marriage valid? This is a question for a priest and the Diocese. Chances are that an annulment would be readily granted. Sometimes not.

 

[Simon_Templar]

Hey Radix,


As i understand it, Catholic teaching is based on the idea hat a valid sacramental marriage is a Covenantal union formed by God and it cannot be dissolved by man. In this view divorce can be permitted in some circumstances when necessary, but divorce does not actually dissolve the Covenantal union, it only dissolves the human legal bonds. This is Why when a divorced person remarries, they commit adultery.

The Covenantal bond is only dissolved by death. An annulment is a judgement by the Church that the marriage was never valid sacramentally to begin with and as such there is no Covenantal bond to worry about.

The Church effectively recognizes two forms of marriage. Natural, in a sense non-christian marriage in which there is no sacramental covenant and christian sacramental marriage in which there is a sacramental bond.

Again this is my understanding of Catholic teaching.

 

[RadixLecti]

Hey Radix,


As i understand it, Catholic teaching is based on the idea hat a valid sacramental marriage is a Covenantal union formed by God and it cannot be dissolved by man. In this view divorce can be permitted in some circumstances when necessary, but divorce does not actually dissolve the Covenantal union, it only dissolves the human legal bonds. This is Why when a divorced person remarries, they commit adultery.

The Covenantal bond is only dissolved by death. An annulment is a judgement by the Church that the marriage was never valid sacramentally to begin with and as such there is no Covenantal bond to worry about.

So would that mean that adultery still does not disolve the Covenantal bond?

 

[Rhamiel]

So would that mean that adultery still does not disolve the Covenantal bond?

correct

 

[chilehed]

I think that the only justification given by Christ for divorce is adultery, so in this case would Jane be said to have committed adultery by marrying someone else? Would that then free Bob to remarry?

A valid, consummated, sacramental marriage is indissoluble except by the death of one of the spouses.

 

[Standing_Ultraviolet]

The term sometimes translated as adultery in Matthew 19:9 is actually "porneia", which pretty generally refers to sexual immorality. Koine Greek actually has a word for adultery, which is moicheia, so it's beyond me why anyone would translate porneia as adultery or unfaithfulness. In historical context, it's pretty clear that the marriages referred to involved a situation which would not be a valid marriage (sometimes being wed to an extremely close relative, for instance).

 

[Simon_Templar]

The term sometimes translated as adultery in Matthew 19:9 is actually "porneia", which pretty generally refers to sexual immorality. Koine Greek actually has a word for adultery, which is moicheia, so it's beyond me why anyone would translate porneia as adultery or unfaithfulness. In historical context, it's pretty clear that the marriages referred to involved a situation which would not be a valid marriage (sometimes being wed to an extremely close relative, for instance).

In the context its translated adultery because the context is marriage. Sexual immorality in marriage, is adultery.

However, the difference of words in Greek is a clue to something, but its not that the marriage was invalid due to being illegal, or immoral.

In Jewish custom the bride and groom signed a marriage contract up to a year before the actual wedding. Once the marriage contract was signed they were legally regarded as husband and wife in all senses except that they were not allowed to sleep together, thus the marriage wasn't consummated until the wedding night.

In this scripture it is probably referring to the case where a person violated the marriage contract during the period of betrothal. This was legally binding as marriage, but the covenant wasn't consummated yet. Thus this may account for why it was the more general term Porneia used.

 

[AMDG]

There can be sexual immorality in marriage and it *not* being adultry, so I think I'll go with GlobalWolf2010's translation of Matthew 19:9 being "porneia"--while adultry is "moicheia". I'd leave it up to a Tribunal to figure out whether the marriage in question is valid or not. (IOW ask your friendly neighborhood priest.)

 

[Simon_Templar]

There can be sexual immorality in marriage and it *not* being adultry, so I think I'll go with GlobalWolf2010's translation of Matthew 19:9 being "porneia"--while adultry is "moicheia". I'd leave it up to a Tribunal to figure out whether the marriage in question is valid or not. (IOW ask your friendly neighborhood priest.)

I should have said that both views are possible. My point was that it is traditionally translated as adultery because it is in the context of marriage. That may or may not be an accurate translation.

 

[Foundthelight]

The Strongs definition

G4202
πορνεία
porneia
por-ni'-ah
From G4203; harlotry (including adultery and incest); figuratively idolatry: - fornication.

From the Vulgate

Mat 5:32 ego autem dico vobis quia omnis qui dimiserit uxorem suam excepta fornicationis causa facit eam moechari et qui dimissam duxerit adulterat

Based on these references I have to go with adultery involving fornication.

 

[Foundthelight]

BTW, many Greek words have different meanings based on context. We need to look at several scholarly sources and go with the majority definition.

 

[Foundthelight]

The Textus Receptus uses the word "moichao" rather than porneia

 

[Standing_Ultraviolet]

The Textus Receptus uses the word "moichao" rather than porneia

I've looked up the original Textus Receptus version of Matthew 19:9, and the text is this, with the word in question underlined, and the word for "commits adultery" bolded:

λέγω δὲ ὑμῖν ὅτι ὃς ἂν ἀπολύσῃ τὴν γυναῖκα αὐτοῦ εἰ μὴ ἐπὶ πορνείᾳ καὶ γαμήσῃ ἄλλην μοιχᾶται καὶ ὁ ἀπολελυμένην γαμήσας μοιχᾶται

The term used is still porneia.

I'm not sure why so many translations choose adultery for the word. Yes, porneia does include adultery, but it's a much more general term than that. Historically, the understanding of the text has been that the individuals involved are not validly married. Other parts of the New Testament state that the ban on divorce is absolute, and so it's easier to understand if we read it in that way.