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Correct. It picked up the definition sometime after the Bible was translated into English.
That's why, in my opinion, certain English translations such as the NIV, changed it from "fornication" to "sexual immorality" - because the latter is a more accurate translation of "porneia". Sexual immorality, like porneia, is more of a 'catch-all' term. That said, languages aren't perfect, and translations aren't perfect and are often met with language barriers, English translations especially. Take for example, when Jesus asks Peter 3 times if he loves Him, in John 21:15-17. In English, we see the word "love" used. But going back to the Greek, the verses take on an entirely new meaning.
John Chapter 21, Verses 15 to 17: So when they had dined, Jesus saith to Simon Peter, Simon, son of Jonah, AGAPE thou me more than these? He saith unto him, Yea, Lord; thou knowest that I PHILEO thee. He saith unto him, Feed my lambs. He saith to him again the second time, Simon, son of Jonah, AGAPE thou me? He saith unto him, Yea, Lord; thou knowest that I PHILEOthee. He saith unto him, Feed my sheep. He saith unto him the third time, Simon, son of Jonah, PHILEO thou me? Peter was grieved because he said unto him the third time, PHILEO thou me? And he said unto him, Lord, thou knowest all things; thou knowest that I PHILEO thee. Jesus saith unto him, Feed my sheep.
With regards to rewording the Bible without noting the original meaning, it has happened - remember that for thousands of years, the church controlled society, and oftentimes had an agenda that wasn't necessarily all benevolent. I'll use another example:
Isaiah 53:5 But he was pierced for our transgressions. He was crushed for our iniquities
In Hebrew, it read like so:
Isaiah 53:5 But he was BOUND for our transgressions. He was BOUND for our iniquities
But the change was made thousands of years later, to put it in line with how Jesus died.
That misses the point of the parable. Marriage was definitely a huge cultural deal even then, but it still doesn't say anything about premarital sex, and the parable was used to explain the narrowness of the road to heaven, as well as the persecution and difficulties that would be endured by Christ's servants and disciples.
You might think it's "amazing", but it really is worth it to study, question and discern. Does God not welcome questions? Is God afraid of having to give an answer rather than be blindly followed? The ban on all premarital sex is a long-standing church and cultural belief, so much so that the nonexistence of the ban in the Bible is obviously very tough to swallow, which explains knee-jerk reactions at the counterpoints on this topic, but it is what it is. Like I said, the Bible doesn't touch on general premarital sex, so there is no scripture for or against it. There's also no scripture on smoking cigarettes, voting Democrat, owning guns, or paying higher taxes either (not counting Matthew 22:21), but that doesn't make any of those necessarily right or wrong.
That would appear to be the case, yes.
Learn to listen to others - evidence and verses have already been provided to counter your arguement. Don't insult others
That is interesting. I appreciate your knowledge on the subject. So how do you decide which you believe without knowing the original language of the scriptures?
The reason I was quoting the parable was to note an acceptable recognition of marriage, not pre-marital anything. Simply noting that Jesus wasn't in a bedroom watching a couple "get married" by having sex.
It really is worthy of study. If there are those out there following God who believe that premarital sex is not a sin or spoken about in the Bible, I want to know what they're thinking and where their evidence is. It truly saddens me.
Of course we can all ask God to help us understand the Bible and His will. Do you truly feel that the Holy Spirit and God have led you to believe that God has no position on the issue of premarital sex?
Do you believe that if someone went to Jesus during his ministry and asked, "Teacher, is it righteous to have sex with my girlfriend?" Jesus would have answered nothing, yes, or no? If you believe his answer would be nothing or that it would be yes it is okay, what aspect of God's character leads you to this conclusion?
...and not prostitute yourselves by going after the lusts of your own hearts and eyes...
I see that much differently, these pieces of scripture above are very specific. I respectfully think that your argument has no basis. The Bible does contain scripture with reference and regards to sexual immorality including premarital sex. "Do not lust in your heart after her beauty or let her captivate you with her eyes" ... does that mean that because it was not written, "Do not lust in your actions by having sex" that it is not implied? Does it say, go ahead and have sex with a woman, just don't look at her and think lustfully???
Job made a covenant with his eyes because he knew that looking at someone lustfully was the same as committing adultery with them in God's eyes. Job knew that one could commit adultery with the lustful thoughts one can think in his heart alone. He was not asking about lustfully thinking about his wife, but other women. Does that mean that only married men commit sin by thinking lustfully of women? And if one can commit sin with their eyes, is the act of sex omitted from committing "adultery"?
What is adultery?
So looking at a women lustfully is committing adultery. And is adultery not an act of sexual immorality? Is it not God's will that you should avoid sexual immorality? Is sexual immorality not a sin?
So looking lustfully and surely acting out those thoughts (sex) is adultery. Therefore premarital sex is clearly adultery and of course a sin.
Is not God eternal? Is God not yesterday, today, and tomorrow? Does God not know exactly how your life is written and whom you will or will not married? Therefore in God's eyes do you not have a wife if he knows your future and in it you are married?
If that were the case, does not God see you as married from the moment he creates you? Does that not mean that if you have sex with someone that is not your wife, when in His eyes you have a wife, you have not committed adultery? For example, a single man/woman having sex with someone prior to being in a marriage??? Is that not addressing premarital sex?
its definitely possible
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