Thanks, I really appreciate your explanation of the difference in word choice between Bible Versions and how they changed through the ages
So, fornification is defined as premarital sex now, but wasn't when traced back to the very origins in ancient text??
Correct. It picked up the definition sometime after the Bible was translated into English.
But I think it is important to note that the translations are updated with current language to reflect true understanding in our current culture as relative to the original meanings in the original culture, are they not? Has language not changed? Has culture not changed? Have scholars reworded the Bible without noting what the true meaning was at the time each translation was used on a scholarly level?
That's why, in my opinion, certain English translations such as the NIV, changed it from "fornication" to "sexual immorality" - because the latter is a more accurate translation of "porneia". Sexual immorality, like porneia, is more of a 'catch-all' term. That said, languages aren't perfect, and translations aren't perfect and are often met with language barriers, English translations especially. Take for example, when Jesus asks Peter 3 times if he loves Him, in John 21:15-17. In English, we see the word "love" used. But going back to the Greek, the verses take on an entirely new meaning.
John Chapter 21, Verses 15 to 17: So when they had dined, Jesus saith to Simon Peter, Simon, son of Jonah,
AGAPE thou me more than these? He saith unto him, Yea, Lord; thou knowest that I
PHILEO thee. He saith unto him, Feed my lambs. He saith to him again the second time, Simon, son of Jonah,
AGAPE thou me? He saith unto him, Yea, Lord; thou knowest that I
PHILEOthee. He saith unto him, Feed my sheep. He saith unto him the third time, Simon, son of Jonah,
PHILEO thou me? Peter was grieved because he said unto him the third time,
PHILEO thou me? And he said unto him, Lord, thou knowest all things; thou knowest that I
PHILEO thee. Jesus saith unto him, Feed my sheep.
With regards to rewording the Bible without noting the original meaning, it has happened - remember that for thousands of years, the church controlled society, and oftentimes had an agenda that wasn't necessarily all benevolent. I'll use another example:
Isaiah 53:5 But he was pierced for our transgressions. He was crushed for our iniquities
In Hebrew, it read like so:
Isaiah 53:5 But he was BOUND for our transgressions. He was BOUND for our iniquities
But the change was made thousands of years later, to put it in line with how Jesus died.
I'm not so worried about "legal" marriage as much as marriage at the least being committing to each other before God as a life long comitment. Some countries may not have government to wed, so they may use tribes, or family tradition, etc. Jesus did describe a wedding banquet in a parable, which seems conclusive enough to demonstrate legal weddings as being substantial before God, do you not agree?
That misses the point of the parable. Marriage was definitely a huge cultural deal even then, but it still doesn't say anything about premarital sex, and the parable was used to explain the narrowness of the road to heaven, as well as the persecution and difficulties that would be endured by Christ's servants and disciples.
I just think it is amazing that Christians can say that they believe God does not rule on premarital sex in the Bible. Just show me any where in the Bible, where God's character promotes or excludes premarital sex fom being of a sinful nature. Present me with scripture that shows God explaining sex as for anyone other than a married couple.
You might think it's "amazing", but it really is worth it to study, question and discern. Does God not welcome questions? Is God afraid of having to give an answer rather than be blindly followed? The ban on all premarital sex is a long-standing church and cultural belief, so much so that the nonexistence of the ban in the Bible is obviously very tough to swallow, which explains knee-jerk reactions at the counterpoints on this topic, but it is what it is. Like I said, the Bible doesn't touch on general premarital sex, so there is no scripture for or against it. There's also no scripture on smoking cigarettes, voting Democrat, owning guns, or paying higher taxes either (not counting Matthew 22:21), but that doesn't make any of those necessarily right or wrong.
In a text that deals with nearly every major thing we may deal with in life, would God leave out sex before marriage or was it so unimportant that he left it from the Bible???
-Steven
That would appear to be the case, yes.