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How would you say it?

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Vance

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JAL said:
Thanks for the compliments. And frankly I can empathize with your position a lot more than before, having wrestled with Genesis these last few days in particular, only to find myself frustrated and disappointed most of the time. I suppose some day God will let us know all the reasons why He chose to write it as He did.
Agreed, and it is a day we can all look forward to! In the meantime, what I hold on to is that the message of God's salvation comes through loud and clear. Here is what I recently said in another thread:

"Oh, no, one of us has that wrong, that is for sure, and the Spirit would not lead us in different directions. And, I agree with you that God does not necessarily provide specific guidance regarding scientific issues. My point was that the Spirit can give guidance regarding the proper interpretation of Scripture, and will never lead one astray in this regard. And, the study of Genesis is, obviously, a Scriptural issue.

Now, let's think about this carefully. If God is allowing Twincrier to feel at peace with her literal interpretation of Scripture, and me to feel at peace with my non-literal interpretation of Scripture, what does that mean? I think that there can only be one conclusion:

The viewpoints that we hold in common about this subject are correct, and the viewpoints upon which we differ are of so little consequence to God that our having different viewpoints does not rise to the level of needing the Spirit's guidance.

So, what viewpoints do we have in common? The theological truths that arise from Genesis.

And what viewpoints do we differ on? Whether, in addition to the theological truths, the events described are literal history or not literal history, or some mix of the two.

Therefore, this tells me that simply does not care what we believe about the literalness or historicity of Genesis 1 and 2, as long as we get the theological messages He intends for us from those passages."


 
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gluadys

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JAL said:
Gluadys, in these last series of posts you revisited two tactics that don't wash with me.

First, you label any interpretation other than YOURS as non-literal to write off my conclusions as contradicting my own literalism. You did the same thing with the 24-hour issue, where your definition of day could not be shown from the text since the earth was still water whereas my definition of day was Moses' words taken literally. That's why I ignored your last post on the 24-hour issue where you continued to accuse ME of being non-literal.


Yes, we are running into something I have often noticed in other discussions of like nature. Many people who claim to be literalists actually are not literalists at all when you look at what the word "literal" really means.


lit·er·al (ltr-l)
(Communications, Literature, Mathematics)
adj.
1. Being in accordance with, conforming to, or upholding the exact or primary meaning of a word or words.
2. Word for word; verbatim: a literal translation.
3. Avoiding exaggeration, metaphor, or embellishment; factual; prosaic: a literal description; a literal mind.
4. Consisting of, using, or expressed by letters: literal notation.
5. Conforming or limited to the simplest, nonfigurative, or most obvious meaning of a word or words.

(Emphasis added)

http://www.thefreedictionary.com/Literal

Given what "literal" means, we can say that the literal meaning of a day on any planet or satellite is the period of time it takes for the body to rotate once on its axis. For the earth, through all of human history, that has been just under 24 hours.

That is the primary, simplest, factual, non-metaphorical, non-figurative, obvious meaning of "day".

Now both we and the biblical writers also used the word "day" in less obvious ways---to refer to a person's lifetime, or to the time period of an event which, in fact, was longer than a day, or to any extended period of time, as appropriate.

By definition, all of these uses are non-literal. That doesn't mean they are untrue, or unreal. But they are not literal.

Similarly, a firmament, is, as you say "a physical substance to anchor our visible stars". (Actually, its primary purpose as noted on day 2 of creation, is to separate the waters. But it is also for the stars on day 4.)

And, according to Genesis 11, it is close enough to be reached by building a high tower.

That is the literal meaning of firmamant. To say it is space is to use the word metaphorically.

So many people claim they interpret scripture literally. Yet when scripture says the earth stands still, that it is fastened securely to its foundations so that it will not shake or totter, they do not interpret these literally at all---even though the biblical writer intended for them to be understood literally.

So, I grant. It is a pet peeve of mine that people, who regularly use non-literal interpretations of their own, fault me for using a non-literal interpretation they do not approve of. If they can change a writer's intended literal meaning to a figurative meaning, because they want to keep in step with science, why do they have trouble when I interpret a passage non-literally when we have pretty good textual evidence that it was intended from the outset to be non-literal!!

For example, you say:

Perhaps we need to keep in mind that Moses’ main goal is to depict the world as created in six days to establish a paradigm/calender of resting every seventh day.

Exactly! This is one of the main signals that "day" in Genesis 1 is not to be interpreted literally (as one rotation of the earth on its axis=24 hours). The days are to be interpreted paradigmatically, not literally.

The same goes for the two-table framework in which the days are set. Three days to set up the domains followed by three paired days to fill each domain. That is the source of the order in Genesis 1 and indicates that the order is not literally chronological one day after another.

(BTW, I’m still uncomfortable with the term mystic. Here you conflate it with metaphorical which confuses me because I define a mystic as a religious experientialist (one who espouses seeing/hearing God). I’m a mystic, but that’s an issue separate from literalism versus metaphor/myth. I’m not saying your usage is wrong, but can we please stick with the more common meaning (experientialist) as to avoid confusing feeble minds like mine?)


You know something? I used to be uncomfortable with the word "organized". You see, I always figured that a person who was organized was uptight, prosaic, with no sense of artistry, no music in their soul, no capacity to let themselves go and be sponataneous. I also thought organized people wrote neatly and clearly, never wore bright colours and always had a place for everything and everything in its place.

That does not describe me. Far from it. Not only am I not like that; I don't want to become like that. So when people started to tell me that I was "so organized" or a "good organizer", I was pretty surprised and quite uncomfortable, though they meant it as a compliment. Finally, a wise friend to whom I confided this discomfort said to me, "You know, being organized is not the same as being neat." Well, that broke the dam. If a person as messy as I am can still be organized, then a person who wears bright colours, laughs at jokes, enjoys a sponateous day in the park, etc. etc. can be organized. I can be organized!! And once I gave myself permission to be organized, I discovered I really am. And I can take some pride in that.

So, even though you feel uncomfortable with the term "mystic", I suggest you not reject it, yet. Much of what you say has a definite mystical flavour to it. Maybe you just need to become a little more familiar with the idea and give yourself permission to accept the description.

As for combining the word "metaphor" with it, that is because mystical experience is so different from ordinary experience that it can only be expressed in metaphorical language. There is no literal way to talk about a mystical experience.

Which reminds me. Even the word "literal" has a primary meaning (as outlined above) and secondary meanings which are not the literal meaning of "literal". (Do you follow me here?)

One of the secondary or non-literal meanings of "literal" is "real, actual" or even "true".

Now, if a person is using this secondary meaning of "literal", you can understand why it would be important to them to be a literalist and avoid non-literal meanings. Because, by this second meaning, anything non-literal is "not real, not actual" even "not true".

I think, in order to avoid confusion, it is best to restrict the meaning of "literal" to its primary meaning. If one wants to say that something is real or true, one should say "real" or "true" not "literal".

Now since Christ was referring to His heavenly Flesh, it stands to reason that He was also referring to heavenly Blood. True, there are other verses which prohibit human flesh and blood from entering heaven, but precisely what I deny of Christ’s statement is human flesh and blood. He is referring to His heavenly Flesh and Blood.

This is one of the things I mean by "mystical". Heavenly flesh and blood is mystical flesh and blood. (And I don't mean I am disagreeing with you about it being physical. It could be physical too.) What it is not is literal flesh and blood for that would be the ordinary physical body of Jesus of Nazareth. The body that could be seen and touched by the disciples.

A good parallel is where Jesus spoke of living water a couple of chapters earlier. I take it literally as a reference to physical water, but not EARTHLY water. It’s heavenly Water (i.e. divine Water), for “He that believeth on me, as the scripture hath said, out of his belly shall flow rivers of living water” (Jn 7:38; cf. Eze 36:25).

And since you say this water is not earthly, I would replace the phrase "I take it literally" in this paragraph with something like "I take this to be real physical water, but not EARTHLYwater..." for if I am right, what you want to emphasize is that although it is not earthly water (which is what "literal" water is), it is still real, real and physical. Just as real and just as physical as literal, earthly water is. Yet, because it is not earthly water, but a mystical, living water, it confuses things to say it is literal water. Literal water is what comes out of my tap when I turn it on to fill the kettle.

The second tactic you revisited was, in a most cavalier manner, dismissing contradiction as mere paradox.

Speaking of what is and is not literal, I literally did not say paradox was "mere". I consider these paradoxes most profound.

I agree with every paradox/contradiction you name. There is no way to accept orthodox Trinitarian, Incarnational doctrine without accepting these paradoxes.

For you, that has meant leaving orthodoxy to affirm a fully material explanation in contrast to the notion of immaterial spirit. I have no problem with you making that choice. I would have to explore the concept a lot more myself before being convinced. I think there are some problems with it, but I am not prepared to go into them yet.


Sorry, Gluadys, this kind of thing does not wash with me. When I think I’ve contradicted myself, I admit it, and then try to revise my theology, which is the whole point of my next post. I’m going to revise my reading of Genesis because I think I’ve located a contradiction with science. What surprises me is that none of the scientific minds on this forum mentioned it before, despite how frequently I begged them for this kind of information. [/color]

Good for you. It is always healthy to review one's convictions from time to time. My concepts in theology have been revised many times, (always for the better, I hope.)
 
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gluadys

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JAL said:
It looks like I need to revise my reading of Genesis because I get the impression that scientists have performed radiometric dating on moon rock indicating an age as old as the earth. Thus I’m led to agree with Barnes’ Notes that at Genesis 1:1 God created the moon (and probably the sun) before the six days began but did not position them in our galaxy until the fourth galactic day.


Sorry. Barnes is wrong. Remember, the sun, its planets, their moons, and other odd items like asteroids and comets are all components of a system. The whole system forms together and is never separated.

From the earliest days of its formation, even before one could properly call it a planet, earth was in orbit around the sun. It has never been separated from the sun either in time or in space.
 
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gluadys

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JAL said:

Let’s put it this way. Even if there are both ancient and modern versions of a certain species living today, we can probably assume that Moses was only dealing with the modern version. That’s his purview in Genesis 1, arguably. For instance, let’s say there are both ancient and modern turtles living today. If Moses’ purview is modern turtles, then this is how we should take the word “turtles” if found in Genesis 1. (As I often put it, words usually have a limited force). So if there are ANY modern turtles (that is, if such a thing exists), then Moses is consistent. I think this approach would handle most chronological problems (although I have to admit that this makes Genesis very unscientific).


There are ancient and modern versions of pretty well all groups, so that is one way to handle it. It would likely mean, in some cases, that the division is very arbitrary. But I wouldn't call that a big problem.
 
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JAL

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gluadys said:
Sorry. Barnes is wrong. Remember, the sun, its planets, their moons, and other odd items like asteroids and comets are all components of a system. The whole system forms together and is never separated.

From the earliest days of its formation, even before one could properly call it a planet, earth was in orbit around the sun. It has never been separated from the sun either in time or in space.
That sounds like a powerful objection to my view. Can you offer evidence to support this conclusion? But please don't speak to me of gravitational and magnetic fields and so forth, that is, things that God can easily control or overcome. Nor do I want to hear that plants needed ordinary sunlight for photosynthesis. God's Light took care of that. Rather, do you have any hard data proving concurrence?
 
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JAL

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Gluadys, I’m getting frustrated trying to defend a wholly chronological view of Genesis 1. I still believe in six galactic days but I’m inclining toward a topical solution for the species (as you apparently suggested earlier). Perhaps this is reasonable based on the following rationale. The first day occurs because God says, “Let there be Light.” But if that’s how the first day occurred, how would the second day occur? The same way! In other words, God repeated this command 6 more times. Thus even though God commanded, “Let there be beasts” or “Let the waters swarm” on one particular day, He could also have given the same command(s) on each of the other days as well. All we know for sure is that the whole process took six days. We don’t know for sure what happened on each particular day. I also developed the following analogy to show that when God speaks a decree, it’s hard to know for sure what day it is actually fulfilled:



A chef says to his daughter on Saturday, “Tell me what kind of cookies you prefer. I’ll make you every kind of cookie that you specify.” So she named her five favorite kinds. And the chef made for her every kind requested. Evening came, and then morning, Sunday being the next day.



Each of the following conclusions might be false: (1) This is the first time that the chef made these cookies for her. Actually he could have made all five types the day before. (2) That this is the last time he did this for her. Perhaps he did the same thing the next day. (3) That he made all five cookies on Saturday. Perhaps two of the five kinds happened to be in the cookie jar already whence He abstained from remaking them. Or perhaps he decided to make all five kinds a week later! In other words the text only tells us only when the chef spoke his decree, not when he executed it. And he may have spoken and/or executed it several times.
 
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JAL

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This post is related to my last one. I kept scratching my head, asking myself, Why would Genesis place modern plants (i.e grasses) at the beginning of creation when in fact they arrived near the end (70 million years ago)? It throws off the whole chronology. But then I realized that Moses had to place plants before the sun was positioned because God wanted readers to infer that He provided Light to the plants until the sun was in place. God probably put the sun in place near the beginning of creation (at the time of ancient plants), but Moses did not want to mention ancient plants unknown to his readers. So instead Moses places modern plants (such as grasses) in this ancient pre-sun period when God's Light was illuminating the earth.

Would this mean that Moses contradicted the fossil record? We can deduce that God pre-accomodated Moses' writing in the following way. In some remote corner of the world God presumably created modern plants in ancient times even though He was not yet ready for them, and then abolished them before they could spread, merely so that Genesis could have these verses written in said order. Then, 70 million years ago, He reintroduced modern plants - but this time allowed them to spread globally.
 
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gluadys

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JAL said:
That sounds like a powerful objection to my view. Can you offer evidence to support this conclusion? But please don't speak to me of gravitational and magnetic fields and so forth, that is, things that God can easily control or overcome. Nor do I want to hear that plants needed ordinary sunlight for photosynthesis. God's Light took care of that. Rather, do you have any hard data proving concurrence?

One of the things I like about questions like this is that they force me to do some searching and I end up finding out fascinating stuff I didn't know before.

The first of these links is to a NASA on-line tour. Most of the rest are from universities teaching astronomy or cosmology. All of them give the same basic story---though the last provides the most up-to-date version. Several go into scientific method and itemize what questions a theory of solar system formation must answer. And some give detail on the supporting evidence. Any way, have fun.

http://www.windows.ucar.edu/tour/link=/our_solar_system/solar_system_1.html&edu=high
http://stardate.org/resources/ssguide/planet_form.html
http://csep10.phys.utk.edu/astr161/lect/solarsys/nebular.html
http://dosxx.colorado.edu/~bagenal/1010/SESSIONS/11.Formation.html
http://www.mnsu.edu/emuseum/information/solarsystem/formation.html
http://www.universetoday.com/am/publish/new_theory_solar_system_formation.html?2152004
http://zebu.uoregon.edu/~js/ast121/lectures/lec24.html

But please don't speak to me of gravitational and magnetic fields and so forth, that is, things that God can easily control or overcome.

Do you not believe these forces were made by God? And for a purpose?
One of the things these forces do is help to form solar systems (not just our own, but all over the galaxy).
Why would God even want to overcome forces which he made to do the work of solar system formation (among other things)?
Since they are accomplishing the purpose God created them for, what would be the point of interfering with them?
 
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gluadys

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JAL said:
Gluadys, I’m getting frustrated trying to defend a wholly chronological view of Genesis 1. I still believe in six galactic days but I’m inclining toward a topical solution for the species (as you apparently suggested earlier). Perhaps this is reasonable based on the following rationale. The first day occurs because God says, “Let there be Light.” But if that’s how the first day occurred, how would the second day occur? The same way! In other words, God repeated this command 6 more times. Thus even though God commanded, “Let there be beasts” or “Let the waters swarm” on one particular day, He could also have given the same command(s) on each of the other days as well. All we know for sure is that the whole process took six days. We don’t know for sure what happened on each particular day. I also developed the following analogy to show that when God speaks a decree, it’s hard to know for sure what day it is actually fulfilled:

Yeah, that sounds plausible to me.

Somewhere, tucked away in a quotes book I keep is a little meditation about how God creates. The author suggests that things keep on keeping on because God is always delighted with them and never bored. So daisies don't grow in profusion just because of their nature. But because God keeps telling the earth: Do it again! Do it again! Bring forth those daisies again!

I'll have to try and find the exact quote.
 
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gluadys

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JAL said:
Would this mean that Moses contradicted the fossil record? We can deduce that God pre-accomodated Moses' writing in the following way. In some remote corner of the world God presumably created modern plants in ancient times even though He was not yet ready for them, and then abolished them before they could spread, merely so that Genesis could have these verses written in said order. Then, 70 million years ago, He reintroduced modern plants - but this time allowed them to spread globally.

This is what is called an ad hoc hypothesis. It is totally a mental construction. No one can say it is wrong, but no one can say it is right either. There is no way to put it to the test.

Science does not allow for ad hoc hypotheses. It doesn't count as scientific unless it predicts evidence and can be tested for that evidence.

But if it is not intended to be a scientific theory, ... well, all one can say is that it is an idea. One can like it or dislike it, but one cannot say whether it is true or false, possible or impossible.
 
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United

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gluadys said:
This is what is called an ad hoc hypothesis. It is totally a mental construction. No one can say it is wrong, but no one can say it is right either. There is no way to put it to the test.
Hi Gluadys,

Sounds a bit like using natural selection to explain major evolutionary development ;)
 
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versastyle said:
Natural selection isn't the only explanation. Natural selection is observed, just not in the way that satisfies most YEC's.
Hi versastyle,

Yes, other variations (punctuated equilibrium etc) exist but are similiarly unsatisfying. Everyone should recognise that natural selection occurs - but the bigger issue is it's ability to produce life as we know it. I am not a YEC, but it still doesn't satisfy me. I fundamentally don't have a problem with evolution both scientifically & theologically - I just think it's proposed mechanism leaves alot to be desired.

I have had this discussion with gluadys previously, & I just couldn't resist the cheap shot in my previous post ;)
 
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JAL

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gluadys said:
Do you not believe these forces were made by God? And for a purpose? One of the things these forces do is help to form solar systems (not just our own, but all over the galaxy). Why would God even want to overcome forces which he made to do the work of solar system formation (among other things)? Since they are accomplishing the purpose God created them for, what would be the point of interfering with them?
Well, as you know, I don't agree, strictly speaking, that "these forces were made by God." In my view they don't exist at all in the sense of a real independent existence. Rather God's Hand at work is what we call gravity, magnetism, and nuclear forces, and He is not going to oppose Himself. Certain miracles such as creation probably required Him to suspend these forces - because earth is more unique than the ordinary planets, having to sustain life.

But some of these scientific issues seem less problemmatical for me now because my current model has the sun in place almost simultaneously with the earth's creation (since I now see the intervening Day 3 as just a momentary modern-plant digression). And yes, I suppose this is an ad-hoc solution, and I'm not really ashamed of that because my Adam-solution is apparently of the same genre. This goes back to my assumption that the Bible is not a plain book but an encryption best decrypted by direction revelations from God. Literalism as I understand it does not have to always entail the simplest possible interpretation. My version of literalism merely holds that when a literal book of Scripture mentions an object such as a plant, it means a real plant. In other words the word "plant" is not a mere metaphor for some moral value or some non-plantlike substance. Similarly the snake in the garden was a real physical snake (in this case Satan in the physical form of a snake).
 
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JAL

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United said:
Hi versastyle,

Yes, other variations (punctuated equilibrium etc) exist but are similiarly unsatisfying. Everyone should recognise that natural selection occurs - but the bigger issue is it's ability to produce life as we know it. I am not a YEC, but it still doesn't satisfy me. I fundamentally don't have a problem with evolution both scientifically & theologically - I just think it's proposed mechanism leaves alot to be desired.

I have had this discussion with gluadys previously, & I just couldn't resist the cheap shot in my previous post ;)
As an OEC, I have similar feelings. I have my doubts about macroevolution. On the other hand I am less dogmatic about creationism than I used to be, having seen some of the evidence for evolution presented on this forum.
 
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Vance

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JAL said:
As an OEC, I have similar feelings. I have my doubts about macroevolution. On the other hand I am less dogmatic about creationism than I used to be, having seen some of the evidence for evolution presented on this forum.
And, really, that is all we ask. What this means is that if someone was to ask you whether evolution contradicted Scripture, you would not be dogmatic about it!
 
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gluadys

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United said:
Hi Gluadys,

Sounds a bit like using natural selection to explain major evolutionary development ;)

How so? We know that natural selection works. We know that it can induce speciation in appropriate circumstances.

It is not ad hoc to rely on mechanisms which we know exist and work as predicted.
 
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gluadys

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JAL said:
. Literalism as I understand it does not have to always entail the simplest possible interpretation. My version of literalism merely holds that when a literal book of Scripture mentions an object such as a plant, it means a real plant. In other words the word "plant" is not a mere metaphor for some moral value or some non-plantlike substance. Similarly the snake in the garden was a real physical snake (in this case Satan in the physical form of a snake).

I would agree with that definition of literalism. So then the question is: are the creation accounts intended to be literal accounts?

I would say, on the basis of the internal textual evidence (and without regard to supporting scientific evidence) that the answer to that question is "no".

Since I don't believe the account is literal in the first place, it follows that the characters in the story (Adam, Eve, snake, etc.) need not be literal either.

They could be. Lots of non-literal works do refer to real people and events, even though overall the story is not history.

So while I don't share herev's belief that Adam and Eve were literal persons, I wouldn't say he is wrong either. What we both agree on is that the story in which they are principal characters is not a documentary about literal events.
 
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