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Post itYou should peep John 1:18 in Greek, considering you quoted it in reference to Jesus. "Only begotten son" does not actually say son. It says "only begotten God." The phrase "God the Son" may not be in Scripture, but Jesus is identified as both God and son in various places.
Already chosen from "before the foundation of the world", etc...The only chosen, by God among the gods, to be God, by God, with God, from among the gods, etc...
Or, the one and only chosen/choice One, from among the ones, by the One, to be the One, with that One, etc...
Or at least the very first one/One anyway, etc...
But more would follow, etc...
God Bless!
The only chosen, by God among the gods, to be God, by God, with God, from among the gods, etc...
Or, the one and only chosen/choice One, from among the ones, by the One, to be the One, with that One, etc...
Or at least the very first one/One anyway, etc...
But more would follow, etc...
God Bless!
Already chosen from "before the foundation of the world", etc...
God Bless!
wheres the only begotten God you mentioned?
I take it you didn't click the link. The phrase the KJV translated to "only begotten son" is "monogenes theos." The English analogue for "theos" is god. Here's the Greek with the relevant portion bolded:wheres the only begotten God you mentioned?
they got it right the KJVI take it you didn't click the link. The phrase the KJV translated to "only begotten son" is "monogenes theos." The English analogue for "theos" is god. Here's the Greek with the relevant portion bolded:
Θεὸν οὐδεὶς ἑώρακεν πώποτε· μονογενὴς θεὸς ὁ ὢν εἰς τὸν κόλπον τοῦ πατρὸς ἐκεῖνος ἐξηγήσατο.
Do you think Greek is perfect? they had their own issuesAnd how did you decide this?
And that's supposed to prove...what, exactly? Greek is the language that the Bible was originally written in(though given that the reason the KJV reads "son" is textual variance selecting between the two readings is not a simple up or down). Ultimately, though, what the Greek demonstrates is that "son" in that passage is not merely meant to convey a familial relationship, but "monogenes theos/huios" is a title directly in opposition to your claim that "God the Son" is not in the Bible.Do you think Greek is perfect? they had their own issues
And that's supposed to prove...what, exactly? Greek is the language that the Bible was originally written in(though given that the reason the KJV reads "son" is textual variance selecting between the two readings is not a simple up or down). Ultimately, though, what the Greek demonstrates is that "son" in that passage is not merely meant to convey a familial relationship, but "monogenes theos/huios" is a title directly in opposition to your claim that "God the Son" is not in the Bible.
Did you read what you linked? Because it doesn't say what you seem to be trying to claim it says, as it is speaking of mindset not language(which is debateable). Excepting Matthew, the NT was written in Greek and all of the extant manuscripts are in Greek. If we are going to determine what the Bible means, that meaning must be consistent with the original Greek. Throwing mud simply because you do not like how the original Greek reads says volumes about how you handle Scripture, though.Greek is not the end all for sure.
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Modern linguistics (thanks to the input of cognisant Messianic Jewish and gentile scholars) shows that the text themselves don't lend to an "original Greek" translation. A very good book you want to get with dozens of examples is, The Semitic Origin of the New Testament, by James Trimm. This can be ordered via www.nazarene.net. Also recommended is the Hebrew/Aramaic New Testament Research Institute at www.nazarene.net/hantri/
A HEBREW OR GREEK NEW TESTAMENT?
I have no issue with the Word of God on earth.
you mean the Catholic Niceno-Constantinopolitan Creed
Greek is not the end all for sure.
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Modern linguistics (thanks to the input of cognisant Messianic Jewish and gentile scholars) shows that the text themselves don't lend to an "original Greek" translation.
you didn't read what i posted, i am not throwing mud because you don't like what i posted haha. If you don't agree that is fineDid you read what you linked? Because it doesn't say what you seem to be trying to claim it says, as it is speaking of mindset not language(which is debateable). Excepting Matthew, the NT was written in Greek and all of the extant manuscripts are in Greek. If we are going to determine what the Bible means, that meaning must be consistent with the original Greek. Throwing mud simply because you do not like how the original Greek reads says volumes about how you handle Scripture, though.
And I am none of thoseYes, which is part of the Statement of Faith for Christianforums.com. And it is Catholic but not Roman Catholic; Lutherans, Anglicans, Baptists, Presbyterians, Moravians, Eastern Orthodox all subscribe to it.
do you a favor huh, reallyYou are at best confusing the hypothesis of an Aramaic substrate to the Greek original, which is valid, with Aramaic primacy, which is invalid, because philologists have shown the New Testament we now have was written originally in the Hellenic tongue, and the attempts of some faith communities to ignore that discredit Christianity.
At any rate, please do us all a favor and read the CF.com Statement of Faith.
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