Just because God can script the motion of every partical with start conditions and quantum mathematics does not mean he does so via your "first cause". I give no credance to "first cause" as it is pure speculation and not mentioned in the Bible. Per the Bible there is plenty of motion that cannot be reconcilled via the laws of physics - as indeed Jesus confronted demons and the work of angels is also documented. All this leads to argumention that flies by the "seat of your pants". Enough!
You cannot have it both ways: God cannot decree every action, while attributing real choices to his creation (man).
As to your observation that Liberterian free will invokes causation by chance: The Bible contains thousands of directives to men. If men do not have Liberterian free will, then God is a trickster - teasing us with choices that we cannot make (as we are constrained by God's decree made long ago). That is idiocy!
Then, you agree with JAL that God is less than omnipotent, that he too is subject to causes beyond his control and outside of his own making.
Just because God can script the motion of every partical with start conditions and quantum mathematics does not mean he does so via your "first cause". I give no credance to "first cause" as it is pure speculation and not mentioned in the Bible. Per the Bible there is plenty of motion that cannot be reconcilled via the laws of physics - as indeed Jesus confronted demons and the work of angels is also documented. All this leads to argumention that flies by the "seat of your pants". Enough!
How else, but by being the first to cause anything, can God 'script' the "motion of every partical with start conditions and quantum mathematics"? But more to the point, how, but by being first to cause anything, can God be omnipotent? Does not omnipotence itself by definition, imply "first on the scene", or more accurately, the one who created the "scene"? God is subject to nothing but himself.
Nevertheless, it is mentioned in the Bible, as he is the "I AM", and "all things were made by him", just for starters. I don't know how much more plain it can be. I use the term, 'first cause', only as a way to direct the mind to consider the implications along that line of logic. 'Omnipotence' necessarily implies 'first cause' and 'first cause' necessarily implies, among other things, 'omnipotence'.
You cannot have it both ways: God cannot decree every action, while attributing real choices to his creation (man).
On the contrary, it is ONLY by God decreeing every action, motion, thought and fact, that choices of the creature can be real. God did not show up within, co-emerge with, nor was he created subject to, reality. Reality is HIS construction. How can anything else be fact, if God did not cause it?
As to your observation that Liberterian free will invokes causation by chance: The Bible contains thousands of directives to men. If men do not have Liberterian free will, then God is a trickster - teasing us with choices that we cannot make (as we are constrained by God's decree made long ago). That is idiocy!
If, as all men agree is true, there are things we cannot do, though we may choose to do, then what is the difference if God requires pure holiness yet it is only by attributing Christ's righteousness to those to whom he has chosen to show mercy, that any are considered pure and holy?
The condemnation is
already the default here; we are born into it! But you paint of picture of neutrality on the part of the creature, pure victimhood, instead of whole-hearted synergism with his own sin.
You are looking at this backwards.