I haven't said anything up to this point becasue my head is still reeling from the last thread on adoration... But reading the SDFC on this, a few thoughts are forming.
Dixie, what saith the EO Church regarding what happens in a Baptist church when they "take communion"? Is there a real sacrament there, even though the Baptists (et al., I'm not picking on Baptists, just using them as an example) deny the Real Presence? FOr the Lutherans, we do indeed deny that they are receiving the true sacrament:
When the sacrament is not rightly taught, Christ is not there.
HOWEVER, when the Sacrament IS rightly taught, Christ is there...but He is NOT there BECAUSE the Sacrament is rightly taught (emphasis on human action), He is there because of the Word.
I believe the BoC parses this issue in the same manner in which election is parsed: the human will causes damnation, but not salvation. The Grace of God effects salvation but not damnation.
IOW, we know why a person goes to hell; we know why another person goes to heaven, but the difference between them is a mystery unknown to us.
We know why Baptists have no true sacrament. We know why we have a true sacrament...but I think the difference between us is categorically the same kind of mystery as election/salvation. We can say it's becasue the "Word is not rightly preached" and this is true. BUt it begs the question. Baptists say the same "word" over the bread and juice that we say over bread and wine, so why is our prayer effective and theirs is not? (and we all agree that theirs is not!) I am NOT suggesting that we have "something" in addition to the Words of Institution that they don't have: that would be suggesting that the verity of the Sacrament depends on us, which (from the last thread) I think we all agree it does not.
Am I making any sense at all?
This is not innovation. This "view" of election and salvation is pretty clearly laid out in the Council of Orange, and is very Augustinian (and personally, I think there are elements of it in Chrysostom and one of the Cyrils, but it could be that I'm putting a happy spin on them).
And the "front side" view of the sacrament that I just described is also NOT an innovation: the RCs denied that the Manichaeans had a true Sacrament becasue of their gnostic views on wine.
So...
The UNpresence of the sacrament can be a result of human intention.
But the presence of the sacrament is only a result of the Word, and never a result of human intention.
How the math works out between those two positions is (just like election/salvation) known only to God: it's a mystery.
Kepler