How many point Calvinist?

[BBAS 64]

First, I am not saying man can do only what God can do. This verse is not dealing with that issue. Second, why stop with this chapter? Why not the whole book of John? Why not all 4 Gospels or the entire NT or the whole Bible? We have to determine where to draw the line. The context shows that Jesus' words in the preceding verses elicited a question from His audience. Jesus answers this specific question. It has nothing whatever to do with the things God does, but with godly works and how we can do them. The phrase may seem to say otherwise, but the context shows what I am saying. IOW, we can only do godly works once we have faith in Christ, since with faith, we are given His righteousness, and before we exhibit faith, our righteousness is as filthy rags.

Good Day, Timothy2

I am glad to see that you are not saying that Men can do God's work. Why stop at this chapter cause in this chapter Jesus is dealing with a group of people that is identified in the chapter.

Joh 6:24 When the people therefore saw that Jesus was not there, neither his disciples, they also took shipping, and came to Capernaum, seeking for Jesus.

They were the "seekers", who crossed the sea. Jesus was talking to these people I guess thjat one could assert that what Jesus taught these "seekers" was only part of the truth, but I would stongly disagree.

It seems that you are saying that the "work of God" = Godly work. Are you using " of God " as an adj. that is used to describe the noun work? Can you site an other verse were "of God" is used as a adj ?

You are still looking at the verse out of context. It doesn't matter what you say about the rest of the chapter if you rip this verse out of it's context. As I said, this verse is speaking of how we can do godly works. Jesus answers that we must believe in Him to be able to do good works. This is in accord with the whole of Scripture, both OT and NT. I think your confusion is that you refuse to see why Jesus is saying what He is saying, and you read into the text what is not there. Using this verse to support the idea that faith is given only to some and no one can have faith unless God gives it is in error. I am not going to debate the merits of that particular philosophy, I am simply stating that using this verse for that is wrong, as it is using it out of context.

May I suggest you reread my post #55 again to see better what I am saying regarding the context of this verse. From what you posted here, you seem to have misunderstood what I was saying.

I have read your post twice. I have not ripped any thing out of context. I read in to the text I have given the text the words the grammer and some of the constuction.

You said:

"The phrase may seem to say otherwise"

The text says what the text says, the phrase is made up of words and those words have meaning along with the constuction of the verse.

You Said:

"Jesus answers that we must believe in Him to be able to do good works"

Joh 6:28 Then said they unto him, What shall we do, that we might work the works of God?

Joh 6:29 Jesus answered and said unto them, This is the work of God, that ye believe on him whom he hath sent.

"Good works"

Eph 2:10 For we are his workmanship, created in Christ Jesus unto good works, which God hath before ordained that we should walk in them.

Good:

agathos

Thayer Definition:

1) of good constitution or nature

2) useful, salutary

3) good, pleasant, agreeable, joyful, happy

4) excellent, distinguished

5) upright, honourable

Timothy, does that word appear in John 6: 28 or 29? I think you agree it does not, which beggs a question why have you added it? The meaning of any text is based on the words used, when you read in to the text words that do not appear IE; "good, able and must" you change the intent of the writer and the meaning of the text. Why would you chose to do such a thing as that?

Peace to u,

Bill