1 Chr 23: 21-22 (the adelphos are biological cousins)
Excellent job.
However, this argument has a few problems.
1. This definiation is taken from the Septuagint. Therefore it is a translation of the original. It is not the original language.
2. Abraham said that his wife was indeed his sister (although she was his cousin). So then we can safely conclude that OT definitions of "brother" and "sister" takes on different meanings than what we know today.
With that as a "disclaimer", you did a great job proving that adelphos has been used to refer to cousins in the OT. In the same way, "brothers" in English can be taken all kinds of ways. But the proof is in the context.
For example, I call a few people "brothers", who are not my flesh and blood brothers, although I do have a flesh and blood brother also. In fact, I even call my cousin "brother" because he is a fellow Christian like myself.
However, suppose a newspaper reporter said that I was holding a meeting at an auditorium and my mother and my brother showed up wanting to talk to me, everybody without exception would naturally put two and two together and think "bio-mom"/"bio-brother". Its the context it is in.
In the same way, if I was a religious leader who had a great following, many of whom one could call my "brothers" (in the faith), and then someone were to refer to someone specifically as being my brother, as to distinguish him from the rest of the crowd, anyone would certainly take that as a reference to a bio-brother.
Quite frankly, your argument is on the same level, and using the same principles as those who argue that Mary wasn't a virgin at all - because the word translated "virgin" simply means "young girl".
I'm sure you know that there are people who argue that quite fervently. And their argument is based on the same principle as yours. Therefore, you would have a great problem arguing with those who say that Jesus was not born of a virgin, because you play on the same field as they, taking words out of context, using an alternative, rarely used definition to prove your point.
The word here translated as wife just means "woman"; it is also used for any female beyond the age of childhood including single women and widows.
(shaking my head in disbelief) Yes. We had this argument before. Ok, so the angel said, "Joseph, don't be afraid to take Mary as
your woman". Obviously, if a man were to take a certain girl as
his woman ummmm I don't think it takes much peanuts to know that means "wife". Guess what, Thekla? I took a girl to be my woman too! Yes, indeed. And now we have 5 children.
The use of the word ews/while/until never refers to what happens after the time span referred to by the term.
So wrong! So it never refers to what happens after the time span referred to by the term? Is that true?
Let's look at a few NT scriptures (to keep it in context) that use that same word:
Matt 2:9 : "After the wise men heard the king, they left. The star that they had seen in the east went before them (
until or while?) it stopped above the place where the child was"
Clearly, the scripture would make no sense if you used the word while.
And again...
Matt 2:13: "After they left, an angel of the Lord came to Joseph in a dream and said, Get up! Take the child and his mother and escape to Egypt, because Herod is starting to look for the child so he can kill him. Stay in Egypt (
until or while?) I tell you to return."
Again, it would make
no sense to translate heos(ews) as while.
And again...
Matt 5:18 "I tell you the truth, nothing will disappear from the law until heaven and earth are gone. Not even the smallest letter or the smallest part of a letter will be lost (
until or while?) everything has happened."
And again...
Mark 6:3 "When you enter a house, stay there (
until or while?) you leave that town."
And again...
Luke 17:8 "But will he not rather say to him, Prepare something for my supper, and gird yourself and serve me (
until or while?) I have eaten and drunk, and afterward you will eat and drink?
And again...
Luke 15:4 "What man of you, having a hundred sheep, if he loses one of them, does not leave the ninety-nine in the wilderness, and go after the one which is lost (
until or while?) he finds it?"
I could go on, and on, and on... but I think (at least I hope) you see my point.
In fact, my boy in grade 3 would be able to accurately answer these questions. It doesn't take much.
But Scripture never says they marry, so how do you come to a conclusion not present in Scripture ?
Ummm. Hello?
Ok. So there is a police report.
*Janice saw Greg with a gun in his hand
*Janice turned to look the other way and she heard a bang
*She looked back and saw Greg holding the smoking gun
What makes you think Greg shot the gun? In fact, what makes you think it was loaded?
It doesn't say that he shot the gun! Therefore he didn't right? [
not]
It doesn't say that Greg's gun was loaded, therefore it wasn't right? [
not]
Likewise:
1, Joseph was betrothed to Mary (promised in marriage)
2. Mary got pregnant
3. Angel told Joseph, "Don't be afraid to take Mary as your wife!" In other words God said "go ahead, you can marry her!"
not "Don't marry her. She is to remain a virgin forever! I know you are already promised to her, and I know I should have told you before you got betrothed. I'm sorry, I'm a bit late. But now that I'm here. Don't touch her! She is to remain a virgin"
4. Joseph waited until after Jesus birth before having sex with her.
5. In the "sin of familiarlity" people said of Jesus, "Is this not the carpenter, the Son of Mary, and
brother of James, Joses, Judas, and Simon? And are not His
sisters here with us?" (notice the context; mother; brothers; sisters)
6. Jesus mother and brothers wanted to talk to him on another occasion.
7. Specific people are referred to as the brothers of Jesus, which out-rules the "nationality", or "like-minded" applications of the word adelphos. This is not to mention the word translated "sisters" above.
8. There is no scriptural evidence that James, Jude, etc... are cousins - just theories, assumptions, and speculations, concocted by EV proponents.
These facts in combination spells only one conclusion: Mary got married, and had children.
In fact, in Jesus day, every young woman was expected to get married. This is especially true of younger women. It was nearly a necessity as women could not work, nor support themselves without a husband.
Case in point: Jesus warned those who divorce their wife for no good reason, saying that such a husband causes his ex-wife to commit adultery. How would she commit adultery is she didn't remarry? Marriage was expected.
Also, a woman, especially a young woman, who never got married was considered accursed. This is also clear in scripture.
Consider, there are very few examples from the early centuries of people claiming that Joseph and Mary were gamew - and these were denounced as heretics.
Considered heretics? Perhaps hundreds of years after Joseph and Mary died, after the EV doctrines came to fruition. That way the truth of the matter is cloudy as it is centuries past.
Is there any documentation of anyone being call a heretic for saying that within the first century?
Sure, but a straight reading of the Gospels and historical sources leaves little if any support for the claim that Joseph and Mary were gamew.
Greg had a gun. bang! Gun was smoking. Was the gun loaded? Nobody saw him load it! It doesn't say in the police report that Greg loaded the gun. Therefore, according to your way of thinking, Greg's gun wasn't loaded.
Its amazing what people do to argue against obvious truth.
if Mary had other children there was no reason for Christ to leave her in the care of John.
Christ said, "Mother, behold your son" and to John, "Behold your mother" and John accepted her as his mother.
Where does it say that John was the only one taking care of Mary?
Some of my close friends, and even my wife calls my mother, "Mom". Does that mean my mother has no other children? Does that mean there are no other siblings taking care of her?
why should Mary necessarily have had other children ?
I asked an honest question, expecting an intelligent answer.
My question was, "
What is wrong with Mary having sex with Joseph and having a family as every blessed couple do? What's the problem with that? I don't get it."
If someone were to ask me what's wrong with Jesus being born of a mother who is not a virgin I would have a lot to answer. There are many reasons why Jesus needed to be born of a virgin. There is prophecy that the virgin birth fulfilled. There are many reasons why Jesus needed to be born of a virgin. Without getting into too much detail. In Jesus wasn't born of a virgin we are both doomed.
If someone were to ask me why Jesus had to be crucified, I would have a lot to answer. It fulfilled prophecy. If Jesus never experienced a complete, absolute, and literal death we are all doomed.
If someone were to ask me why Jesus had to be raised. I would have much to answer. It fulfilled prophecy. Without writing a book, if Jesus wasn't raised bodily then we should all just live like dogs, and die like dogs. Without the bodily resurrection, we are doomed.
Likewise,
when I ask why Mary has to remain a virgin I expect an intelligent answer.
Did it fulfill prophecy like all other events did. Was is the reason for such doctrine?
After Jesus was born, Mary's sexual and marital status has nothing to do with him. He is separated from her body. Therefore whatever happens to that body doesn't have anything to do with Jesus. If she is defiled, He wouldn't be! If she got married, that wouldn't affect Jesus' sinlessness of holiness in any way. Every person is responsible for their own bodies, especially if they are not pregnant.
Jesus was already born of a virgin, which fulfills all requirements and prophecies.
The question remains -
Why is it that Mary had to remain a virgin? (at least in your mind)
Or is it true that someone concocted the doctrine within the first few hundred years AD for the purpose of applying hyper-holiness to Mary, which is nothing more than an over-exaggeration that is simply not true.