Would you please let me know what passage adelphos is found in the Greek OT that clearly means cousins?
1 Chr 23: 21-22 (the adelphos are biological cousins)
Regarding Mary being only betrothed, without marriage. Please forgive my frankness of speech, but that just seems to be a play on words. Explicitly speaking, the scriptures do say that Mary was betrothed. But not everything has to be spoken explicitly to make it true.
Indeed, but if the Scripture is to indicate full marriage the term gamew would be the word choice to indicate this state.
Please let me explain: My sister is bad for this. If I ask her to do anything for me I have to explicitly mention every detail. If not she won't do it. For example, lets say I ask her to go to the store for me and get a dozen eggs. Before she leaves I hand her a coupon for 50 cents off of Brand A eggs. I tell her to get Brand A, and I give her the coupon for that specific item.
She comes back with Brand A eggs, but she didn't use the coupon. Why? Because I didn't ask her to use the coupn. I unconsciously assumed that she would put two and two together and figure that the reason I asked for Brand A eggs, and gave her the coupon, she would automatically know that I want her to use the coupon.
This kind of thing happened so many times. If I give her any instructions I must remember to give her explicit details, otherwise two and two just won't make four!
I sarcastically think to myself that I should tell her to make sure she is breathing when running the errand, otherwise it may not be done. No, it's not that bad, but you get my point.
Some people are more literal or concrete thinkers than others, who tend to a different focus in their use and interpretation. (And sometimes, this sort of concreteness can be used with other motives
)
Having said that, putting two and two together regarding the scriptural account of Mary means she got married. How do I figure?
1. She is betrothed.
That is clearly stated, yes. The term used is mnusteuw - betrothed.
2. The Angel of the Lord said to Joseph, "Do not be afraid to take Mary as your wife!"
The word here translated as wife just means "woman"; it is also used for any female beyond the age of childhood including single women and widows.
Notice the angel didn't say, "Don't marry her. She is to remain a virgin forever!".
Nor does it say to marry (gamew) her.
On this point, there is no statement in Scripture to indicate that they ever married.
On the contrary, God gave Joseph the "green light" to marry Mary.
3. It explicitly says that Joseph waited until Mary gave birth to Jesus before he "knew her" - obviously referring to sex.
The use of the word ews/while/until never refers to what happens after the time span referred to by the term. We only know there has been a "change of condition" when we are given further information that states the condition has changed. There are numerous passages in the OT and NT using "ews" where the condition is permanent (does not change).
The passage in this case is purposed with establishing a clear virgin conception - leaving us with no doubt about the parentage of Christ.
Its as clear as a bell to me. Joseph had sex with her after she gave birth to Jesus. So then, if Joseph never got married to her, then we have a big problem!
But Scripture never says they marry, so how do you come to a conclusion not present in Scripture ?
On the other hand, if you read the Scripture in Greek knowing:
1. there are distinct terms for betrothal and marriage and the term for marriage is never used for Joseph and Mary
2. the terms translated as wife and husband actually mean woman and man, and are used for any adult regardless of marital status and also as a general term of address (Christ uses the term yuni when referring to Mary and other women)
3. the term ews does not imply a change unless we are given further information that the condition changed, and we are given no such information in reference to Joseph and Mary
4. the term adelphos can refer to any number of relationships, and is as easily used for those of the same nation (Paul calls the Jews his adelphos, the stepbrothers Herod and Phillip are called adelphos, Lot and his uncle Abraham are called adelphos, Joseph's brothers are all referred to as his adelphos but only Benjamin and he share the same mother, adelphos can also mean like-minded, of the same tribe, spiritual brethren, and in Greek literature has other meanings, including spouse).
Coming from a different language mindset, and knowing this information, do you think you would necessarily reach the same conclusion that you have ?
No, it doesn't explicitly state that she got married, but put two and two together and there you have it - marriage. Pretty obvious to me!
How does Scripture support your conclusion ?
Or is this something you have inferred or heard that seems to be reflected in the translation ?
Consider, there are very few examples from the early centuries of people claiming that Joseph and Mary were gamew - and these were denounced as heretics.
In fact, according to what is extent of the writings of the pagan detractor of Christianity Celsus (2cnd c. AD) the Jews state that Mary had only one child - Jesus. Though Celsus, citing the Jews, refutes that Jesus is the Son of God, he also does not claim that Joseph was the father, nor that Mary had other children. This is instructive, as to make a claim that was easily refuted by common knowledge would undermine his entire argument. So he does not claim, nor do his Jewish sources, that Mary had other children.
Some people might say that Mary never died because the scriptures don't say she died... or some stupid thing like that. But obviously, Mary is a human, and as a human she died. Point is - just because it is not explicitly stated doesn't mean it didn't happen.
Sure, but a straight reading of the Gospels and historical sources leaves little if any support for the claim that Joseph and Mary were gamew.
There is other Scriptural information -- for example, if Mary had other children there was no reason for Christ to leave her in the care of John.
But honestly, what is wrong with Mary having sex with Joseph and having a family as every blessed couple do? What's the problem with that? I don't get it.
If they weren't married, the problem is obvious.
But the other question is - why should Mary necessarily have had other children ?
