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How do you reconcile an omnipotent, omniscient, and omnibenevolent god with the existence of suffering/evil on earth?
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How do you reconcile an omnipotent, omniscient, and omnibenevolent god with the existence of suffering/evil on earth?
Thank you for your response.The standard response is that the 'problem of evil' is resolved by having God obey His own moral laws. Thus, the thinking goes, God could intervene to eradicate suffering, but chooses not to, in the interests of some greater good.
Best wishes, 2ndRateMind.
Thank you for your response.
What is this "greater good"?
How do you know some god isn't interfering all of the time?If God interfered every time we made some mistake that caused some evil, how could we ever learn by our mistakes, and how could we ever learn to resist temptation? In such a situation we could not grow and mature and become moral agents in our own right.
You can't reconcile naieve, self-paradoxical, concepts like omnipotent, ... with themselves, let alone anything else. They are (flawed) terms from greek philosophy - adequate as a quick shorthand so long as one doesn't think they are good descriptions of anything.How do you reconcile an omnipotent, omniscient, and omnibenevolent god with the existence of suffering/evil on earth?
How do you reconcile an omnipotent, omniscient, and omnibenevolent god with the existence of suffering/evil on earth?
I agree ebia. But why does the bible try to describe God in such a way? And why is there so many Christians that don't agree (or understand) what you just stated?You can't reconcile naieve, self-paradoxical, concepts like omnipotent, ... with themselves, let alone anything else. They are (flawed) terms from greek philosophy - adequate as a quick shorthand so long as one doesn't think they are good descriptions of anything.
Were you actually serious here?Because freewill exists so does evil, we are given the choice to love God. There you go I just saved you hours of debating, lol
I appreciate your honesty.A question which has plagued theologians for centuries. I don't know that there is a sufficient answer. For me, suffering is a reminder that we as fellow humans have not done enough for our fellow man.
Probably not much of an answer but it's what comes to mind right now.
I've asked the question several times and I still haven't gotten a logical answer. I usually get the free will response or some other bogus answer. I just wanted to see if anyone could make sense of it. But I'm pretty much on the same page as ebia, so this will probably be my final time to ask the question. I just don't see how anyone can give such traits to a supreme being and find it logical and rational.If I may ask, what prompted the question?
It doesn't. The bible mostly talks about the power of God in poetry (eg in the Psalms, or Isaiah). It occasionally uses phrases in context like "with God nothing is impossible" but reading a phrase like that as the same kind of absolute statement implied by a technical term like omnipotence is a bit silly.I agree ebia. But why does the bible try to describe God in such a way?
Because we all suffer from the human tendancy to think they know what God is like and to try to fit the biblical picture into that.And why is there so many Christians that don't agree (or understand) what you just stated?
So what do you view as the purpose(s) of the biblical stories? Stories with moral teachings?It doesn't. The bible mostly talks about the power of God in poetry (eg in the Psalms, or Isaiah). It occasionally uses phrases in context like "with God nothing is impossible" but reading a phrase like that as the same kind of absolute statement implied by a technical term like omnipotence is a bit silly.
Because we all suffer from the human tendancy to think they know what God is like and to try to fit the biblical picture into that.
Maybe you should read your fellow christian Ebia's posts in this thread. I'm getting tired of arguing with the christians who take the bible literally when I really don't think it should be taken that way myself.Let me attempt to tackle your question, or at least give us both a starting point for our conversation:
When God created Adam and Eve, there was no suffering. They both had communion with God and everything was good. They were given 1 rule: do not eat of the tree of knowledge of good and evil. But after a while, to make a long story short, they disobeyed God and ate from that tree, causing sin to enter the world. One of the consequences of sin is suffering.
I lack faith towards religions and gods. Faith is the belief in something that lacks enough factual evidence (proof).Also, I have a question for you: Let's say that you never can come to a satisfying answer to this question, what do you foresee the consequences as far as your faith goes?
Christianity, maybe just a rejection of Judaism?Atheism, maybe just a rejection of Christianity, any insights?
Maybe you should read your fellow christian Ebia's posts in this thread. I'm getting tired of arguing with the christians who take the bible literally when I really don't think it should be taken that way myself.
I lack faith towards religions and gods. Faith is the belief in something that lacks enough factual evidence (proof).
Christianity, maybe just a rejection of Judaism?
I just reject one more god than you do![]()
The bible doesn't make any sense when it is taken literally. It does not relate to the reality of this world. You can't give an unknown higher entity traits as a human being. That is ridiculous.Well, that doesn't necessarily surprise me, but a Bible that can only be read subjectively and interpreted with whatever flavor you want to give it isn't really worth reading. Also, if you automatically ignore answers based on a literal reading of the Bible, it seems to point to an insincerity in your question:
Since you find the concept of an omnipotent, omnipresent God and your observation of evil incongruous, it would seem that any answer that harmonized these two concepts would challenge your framework. Your response seems to suggest that you will only accept an answer within your current framework, which is intellectually dishonest.
Sorry, I was under the impression that you were a seeker, not an outright atheist.
But as to your definition of faith, the word "enough" is a subjective term, because "enough" is a different quantity for everyone. In these cases, I generally say 2 things:
It takes factual evidence to conclude that something is true. A single ancient book cannot be taken as factual evidence just because it states so. This is why ebia's stance would be the correct one. Although, it would obviously still take faith to believe in God.1. What would be "enough" proof in your mind?
2. Proof is different than Persuasion.
You would be the richest man in the world with all of the Agnostics/Atheists (rational people) there are...If I had a dollar for every time I heard that...![]()
In so far as it is possible given our limitions, it's the story, in a wide variety of genres, as to what God has done and is doing to put right what is wrong with the world. More specifically:So what do you view as the purpose(s) of the biblical stories? Stories with moral teachings?
If you find that a problem, you have a problem - one that has nothing to do with whether given bits of the text are literal or not. One is always faced with the problem of interpretation - any communcation involves the active particpation of both speaker and listener. Saying "it's literal" doesn't get you out of that bind because (a) that is applying an interpretation to the text (literal is not the default mode of texts) and (b) there is always considerable further interpretation to do.Well, that doesn't necessarily surprise me, but a Bible that can only be read subjectively and interpreted with whatever flavor you want to give it isn't really worth reading.