As I wrote earlier, I am aware of the undefined temporal aspect implied by the Greek "until," but technically the English "until" also holds that same aspect and is used in that manner in logic. The reason we colloquially take "until" to signify the end of continuing action is that when one conspicuously avoids making an outright statement by means of using vague, noncommittal, or in this case aspectually aorist language, we recognize that to be a form of tacit denial.
I doubt any Greek scholar has actually published on the question of whether Greeks had differing notions of what constitutes tacit denial, but examples of people saying they didn't perform an action until death wouldn't enter into consideration in that study. In English just as easily as in Greek I may say something like "I will never betray my wife until death" without implying I will after death, being that there's no expectation in normative communication for me to comment on my earthly relations past my death. This communicative norm actually leads to the idiom wherein until + a reference to death, destruction, or end signifies perpetuity or indefiniteness, which I expect is an idiom that exists in Greek as readily as in English, and probably explains your Septuagint references more plausibly than the assumption that the Greeks were conspicuous logicians would.
If, however, I said "I will not kill and eat any pigs before Wednesday," there's an obvious tacit implication here that I'm not a vegetarian and I do not keep kosher, even though on a technicality it's not correct to assume that. Am I to understand you're suggesting that for lexical reasons a Greek wouldn't be able to read between the lines?
