- Oct 16, 2004
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Again, follow the rule:If someone were to receive some kind of direct revelation today, and it directly contradicted something in Scripture, which should one follow? You want to trust that revelation that is supposedly from God, but if His Word is wrong, then why trust any other revelations from Him? Direct revelation is fine and dandy, when we can look at it in hindsight and *KNOW* it came from God (your Paul example). But today, how can one possibly trust a supposed revelation without judging it by Scripture? How can one possibly claim our "inner certainty" is more important given we already know man's heart is corrupt?
"If I feel certain that action-A is evil, and action-B is good, I should go with action-B.”
First, do you know any exceptions to the rule? No you don't, because it's a tautology.
Secondly, what do you mean by "contradict Scripture"? Being fallible, you don't really KNOW for sure what Scripture says. Both the exegete and the prophet, in the final analysis, are looking for feelings of certainty. Are you envisioning the following unlikely scenario?
"I see a vision, and I feel certain that it contradicts Scripture, but also I feel certain that the vision is correct."
That's unlikely because the Inward Witness has already convinced you that Scripture is true. Therefore any vision from Him is likely to leave you feeling certain that the vision is correct, and that YOUR (former) exegesis was just a misreading of Scripture. I already provided 2 examples - Paul's vision on the road to Damascus, and Peter's vision on the rooftop. Both visions served as correctives to faulty exegesis.
Ideally every word that came from Paul's mouth was delievered to the audience at 100% certainty - and remained at 100% certainty. But such was not the case and, furthermore, some of his teaching was delivered textually rather than orally. I'll say it again, when certainty is less than 100%, naturally your conscience will sometimes move you to fall back on exegesis as a crutch.Further, Luke openly praised the Bereans for judging everything they heard by Scripture (Acts 17:11).
Secondly, you're ASSUMING that the Bereans were attempting to analyze Scripture with primary recourse to the exegetical approach. In post 37 I laid out a second approach grounded in direct revelation. It is fairly reasonable for me to speculate that the Bereans were trusting in the power of revelatory illumination to clarify the verses.
I gave two examples already: Paul's vision on the road to Damascus, and Peter's vision on the rooftop. Both visions served as correctives to faulty exegesis. And frankly every righteous man and righteous act preceding the canon confirms that righteousness isn't dependent on exegesis. The prophet Abraham's righteousness can only be defined in terms of obedience to the Voice - that's direct revelation.Is there any statement in Scripture like, "they were righteous, for they trusted their own certainty over Scripture"? I'd like to see that verse if you know of one.
In the gospels we find a striking contrast between the bible scholars of that day, whose teaching was often faulty, versus the accurate teaching of Christ, which came from His Father by direct revelation. Again, Jesus Himself underscored that contrast like this:Is there any statement in Scripture like, "they were righteous, for they trusted their own certainty over Scripture"? I'd like to see that verse if you know of one.
"At that time Jesus said, "I praise you, Father, Lord of heaven and earth, because you have hidden these things from the wise and learned, and revealed them to little children." (Mat 11:25).
In terms of understanding Scripture, bible-scholars are completely outclassed by those who abound in direct revelation. You've read the Book of Hebrews, right? Let's be honest. That writer's amazing level of insight was clearly rooted in direct revelation.
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