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How can omniscience & omnipotence be compatible with free will?

SonOfTheWest

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Let's say you have a free choice between A & B. You end up choosing A. Up until the time you actually make the choice, could you still have chosen B?

I answered in the affirmative. Most of the other stuff is just precautionary because some people around here(and I don't think you are one) try to present simple scenarios and then try to pull of a "gotcha!" moment.
 
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Hakan101

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Not true. Up until the time Pete makes his choice, he can freely choose A or B. That was defined as a presupposition.

Then what happens if x becomes A on day 1 and y becomes B on day 3? Does x remain equal to A? Or does it change to B? If it changes to B, at what point in time does it change to B?

I must mention for the third time, you keep ignoring God's omniscience. That was also defined as a presupposition. Up until Pete makes his choice he can freely choose A or B, but that doesn't change the fact that God in his omniscience knows what Pete's choice will be.

Several times you have asked "What if" and inserted a scenario where God makes an incorrect prophecy. Herein lies the problem. God will not be incorrect, to suggest it means he is not omniscient or he chooses to be wrong. Both have been established as false, that's why I reminded you of what LostMarbles said. This is why asking "what happens if x becomes A on day 1 and y becomes B on day 3" is erroneous, because if x becomes A on day 1, y will not become B on day 3, it will become A. Because God will not make an incorrect prophecy.

Are you saying God won't tell Pete what A/B choice he'll later make because Pete could choose the contrary choice?

As two of the presuppositions were that God can do anything and knows everything, then what exactly happens if God establishes x=A on day 1 and Pete establishes y=B on day 3?
I am saying God knows if Pete would purposely contradict God's foreknowledge, and therefore would not share it. Like I said above, if God establishes x=A on day 1, then due to the presuppositions, Pete will freely choose y=A.

Pete can freely choose, God can do anything and knows everything, therefore God will know what Pete freely chooses before it happens.
 
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Cieza

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I must mention for the third time, you keep ignoring God's omniscience. That was also defined as a presupposition. Up until Pete makes his choice he can freely choose A or B, but that doesn't change the fact that God in his omniscience knows what Pete's choice will be.
That is why there is a conflict. If Pete can freely make his choice, then y has no value prior to Pete making his choice. But if God is fully omniscient, then y does have a value prior to Pete making his choice. Therefore, either there cannot be free will or there cannot be omniscience.

Several times you have asked "What if" and inserted a scenario where God makes an incorrect prophecy. Herein lies the problem. God will not be incorrect, to suggest it means he is not omniscient or he chooses to be wrong. Both have been established as false, that's why I reminded you of what LostMarbles said. This is why asking "what happens if x becomes A on day 1 and y becomes B on day 3" is erroneous, because if x becomes A on day 1, y will not become B on day 3, it will become A. Because God will not make an incorrect prophecy.
What if x is written down on a sheet of paper prior to the point in time y is established. Since you are contending that x must be equal to y, then what happens if the sheet of paper is shown to Pete before he determines the value of y? Please explain if Pete has a free choice to make y equal to A or B, what would force him to make the value of y be equal to the value of x.

I am saying God knows if Pete would purposely contradict God's foreknowledge, and therefore would not share it. Like I said above, if God establishes x=A on day 1, then due to the presuppositions, Pete will freely choose y=A.
If it is presupposed that Pete can freely choose either A or B, then y could equal A or B. If x has a value established prior to the time y has a value established, then Pete's choice could cause y to not equal x.

But just to be sure we're on the same page:
x = The A/B value God knows Pete will choose
y = The A/B choice Pete chooses

Which has a value assigned to it first - x or y?


Pete can freely choose, God can do anything and knows everything, therefore God will know what Pete freely chooses before it happens.
If Pete can freely choose, then he could choose either A or B (we'll call this choice y) - regardless of whether or not God knows what he'll choose. That's why there is an inherent conflict between omniscience and free will.
 
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Hakan101

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That is why there is a conflict. If Pete can freely make his choice, then y has no value prior to Pete making his choice. But if God is fully omniscient, then y does have a value prior to Pete making his choice. Therefore, either there cannot be free will or there cannot be omniscience.

The problem is y hasn't received a value yet. God did not give y the value, only Pete can give y the value. God merely knows what Pete will value y as, being omniscient. To say God gave y the value implies he is forcing Pete's choice. He is not. There is a difference between God knowing what will happen, and deciding what will happen.

What if x is written down on a sheet of paper prior to the point in time y is established. Since you are contending that x must be equal to y, then what happens if the sheet of paper is shown to Pete before he determines the value of y? Please explain if Pete has a free choice to make y equal to A or B, what would force him to make the value of y be equal to the value of x.

Who wrote down what x is? Did God? Or did God tell someone else to write it down and show it to Pete? The point is if God allowed Pete to know the foreknowledge, it must be because he knows Pete will choose that y is equal to x. Because God is omniscient, he knows what will happen. He would not tell Pete that he will choose y=x unless Pete actually was going to choose y=x. He wouldn't lie to Pete.

If it is presupposed that Pete can freely choose either A or B, then y could equal A or B. If x has a value established prior to the time y has a value established, then Pete's choice could cause y to not equal x.

But just to be sure we're on the same page:
x = The A/B value God knows Pete will choose
y = The A/B choice Pete chooses

Which has a value assigned to it first - x or y?

I know Pete can freely choose A or B, and also that y could not equal to x. I'm saying if God knows that it will be y=x, then it will be y=x. The first to be assigned value is the x of course, since it occurs in time before y does.

If Pete can freely choose, then he could choose either A or B (we'll call this choice y) - regardless of whether or not God knows what he'll choose. That's why there is an inherent conflict between omniscience and free will.

Where is the conflict here? Pete can freely choose A or B regardless of whether or not God knows what he'll choose, right? Then it follows that God's omniscience has no effect on Pete's free will.
 
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elman

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I only assume Pete has a free choice between Wheaties and Cheerios.

If God cannot make an incorrect prophecy, then either:
A) He is incapable of making a prophecy relating to a future freely made decision by a free will agent
B) What appear to be unimpeded freely made decisions weren't really unimpeded & freely made. In other words, anything that appears to be a free will agent is really an automaton.

Or C) God knows what you are going to chose using your free will before you make your choice.
 
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elman

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Because one of the presuppositions is that Pete is a free will agent and can freely choose Cheerios or Wheaties - regardless of what anyone else thinks he will choose.
Pete can be a free will agent able to chose Cheerios and Wheaties and God can still know which he is going to chose. There is no reason to assume God is going to make a mistake.
 
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elman

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Your assumptions are incorrect. When x (God's knowledge of y) occurs, y (Pete's freely made A/B choice) hasn't yet been established. If x is established prior to y being established, and y is made freely, then x cannot change as a result of what y is. So if x is A and Pete chooses B, then x does not equal y and God's foreknowledge has been compromised.


Not true. If Pete is forced to choose y so it is equal to x, then his choice hasn't been freely made. In order for Pete's choice to be freely made, he will be able to choose y so that it may be equal to x or so that it won't be equal to x.

Remember, if x is established before y, then x cannot change. You cannot have x precede y and simultaneously y precede x.
It only works if God does not know what the choice is going to be, but if God does know your analogy does not work.
You keep making the same error: You say: "So if x is A and Pete chooses B" --God does not know it is A if Pete chooses B.. He never knows the wrong thing.
 
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GrayAngel

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Again I agree with you. There may be many different 'planes' of reality. I hold the belief that it may even be possible for the laws of physics, time, ect, to even be found to be differnt in our own plane of exsistance. Who knows? Have we discovered all the laws of physics? Do we know everything?

But on the part where you belive that free will is an illusion, I belive that cheapens Christ's life, and death. The gospel becomes a lie if only a few chosen can recive it. What happens to the free gift of God which is grace through Christ Jesus to all who recive him, if it is unatainable? This flies in the face of 'redemmed by grace'. Why did Jesus die then? One would think God could just pick and choise without comming to earth to die at the hands of his own creation. None of this makes any sense at all from a bibical gospel point of veiw.

The argument can go both ways. You say that predestination makes God evil, because He chooses who goes to Heaven and who doesn't. But with free will, God can be accused of idly allowing evil to happen. Have you ever seen the first Spider-man movie? After Peter Parker gets cheated out of his money, he witnesses the jerk getting robbed. When the thief runs his way towards the elevator, Peter stands out of the way and lets him pass. His excuse: "I fail to see how this is my problem." Is God like Peter Parker?

No matter which way you go, if we apply our own human standards to God, He's always evil. But God is not human. As creator, He has a different role to play.

Predestination does not affect the Gospel. The reason He couldn't just pick and choose us without dying is for the same reason you believe He couldn't just let us all into Heaven. Whether we have free will or are predestined, we fall short of God's standards, and we need Jesus to save us. And according to the Bible, once you're saved, our salvation is guarded in Heaven by God's own hand. In other words, we can't lose it.

The Bible says that God not only knew who would be saved, it says that He chose us from the start. We did not save ourselves: it was all God.

This is an intresting point of veiw, and I have actualy read on the subject studying Ivan Pavlov concerning nurture vrs nature. Pavlov came up with the term of conditional reflex, meaning a learned behavioral trait. He was able to condition both dogs, and hummans to respond to certian stimuli in detreminable, and recordable responses. However, I still believe the idividual taxom in question, being either a dog, humman, or otherwise is the determinig factor. For example, if you take a tiger cub from birth, never having know the wild, and raise it in your house. You will be living with a wild tiger in your house. Not matter what you do you cannot retrain DNA to act another way. We are mankind, and no matter what we will act like wise. So with that being said I believe that eviromental factors are not the deciding force on who we become. God may influence us, but we must choise to 'become' anything

As a psychology student, I'm very familiar with Pavlov. His contribution was to show how powerful the influence of the environment has on an animal. Using his methods, along with others', one could essentially mold any kind of behavior they like. However, like you say, there are some limitations. Biology plays a major role in behavior, as well. Some species have instincts or other factors that get in the way of environmental learning.

Humans are little different. All of us were born with DNA, and all of us were put in a certain environment to learn and grow. We had no role in creating ourselves: inside and outside were both given to us. All of our behaviors are consistent with who were are, and there is no wiggle room for free will to exist.

The only other logical factor to our growth I can imagine is the spiritual realm (angels, demons, and God), which are, again, external influences acting on us.

Agreed. But the question I have is what do you think his plan is? Dommination?

Isa 42:5 Thus saith God the LORD, he that created the heavens, and stretched them out; he that spread forth the earth, and that which cometh out of it; he that giveth breath unto the people upon it, and spirit to them that walk therein:
Isa 42:6 I the LORD have called thee in righteousness, and will hold thine hand, and will keep thee, and give thee for a covenant of the people, for a light of the Gentiles;
In the world of mankind: He gives breath to the people upon it, not only air to breathe in, but the breath of life itself and he gives spirit, the powers and faculties of a rational soul, and mind to those that walk therein. Now this is prefixed to God's covenant with the Messiah, and the commission given him, not only to show that he has authority to make such a covenant and give such a commission, but that the design of God's work of redemption was to maintain the honour of the Creator, and to restore man to the allegiance he owes to God as his Maker. This is a bond, a union of God with his creation, not a dictation and, and, and God has given his creation the commision to be a light to the gentiles. He's not forceing the gentiles. It is also written that by the foolishness of preaching,God srpeads the gospel. God has given us all the resources to make a decsion.


I am only a man, so I don't know the full extent of God's plan. It's far too complicated and big for us to imagine. But the simple story of it is this: From the start, God created humans. In the garden was a temptation, which God knew they would not be able to ignore forever. The serpent, who He knew full well was in the garden with them, tempted them. All of the world was thrown into disorder because of their sin, and mankind was separated from God.

God planned for mankind to fall, so that He could send Jesus, who existed even in the beginning [notice how God refers to Himself in the plural "us" in Genesis?], to redeem us. In this corrupted world, God would select a few to save from the fire and make them His prized possessions.

Now those of us who are alive are waiting for Christ's return, and I expect many more surprises to come. This is the simple version of God's plan, according to the Bible.

True to a point. We have the right to not listen to God's call. we can refuse the teachings just like the parable of the seeds on hard soil. Grow quickly, than fade away.

Why did Jesus go threw so much crap for nothing? Why did he Preach the sermon on the mount, teach parables, teach us to pray if it is meaningless?
I cannot grasp the theroy of predestination.

The parable of the sower that you mentioned is another point for predestination in my view.

Did you ever think it was strange that a sower would throw his seeds among weeds, and in dry places where they obviously wouldn't grow? God, the sower, did not give the seeds an equal chance. Otherwise, He would have planted them all in the soil instead of tossing them around.

The seeds had no choice in the matter. They fell where they fell, and their fate was sealed from the beginning.

Jesus did not die for nothing. He still died for the sins of those who would believe in Him. He gave the sermon on the mount to teach us. The parables were given so that many would not understand, but those who did would have their eyes opened by God. He taught us to pray because He wants us to have a relationship with Him.

First of all, we are the creation, not the creator.... our own points of veiw are meanningless. Our opinons are worthless assumptions, nothing more than the filty rags of our works.

Second, you have absolutly no basis at all to do with the credibility of God. None.

If you look into it you will find that he has sent us the holy spirit as a guide, and a teacher to help us with life. Jesus testify's, us to the Father, claiming us for himself by the promise of God bought by his own blood. The father holds fast to his word, keeping his covanents with us and answering our please.

Nearly all we've been talking about is our opinions. Logic is formed around our own opinions.

The Holy Spirit is for believers only. What about people who are not believers? How does God account for them in His plan? If someone had the intent to kill you, and He succeeds, then was that a part of God's plan? If not, was God too weak to stop it?

God's plans are for the good of those who love Him. If God allows bad things to happen, which He has no part of according to free will, then what worth is His plan? Sure, His plans for us are for good, but there are a lot of sinful people in the world who will just screw up every good plan He's got.
 
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Cieza

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The problem is y hasn't received a value yet. God did not give y the value, only Pete can give y the value. God merely knows what Pete will value y as, being omniscient. To say God gave y the value implies he is forcing Pete's choice. He is not. There is a difference between God knowing what will happen, and deciding what will happen.
So you are saying Pete cannot make a free choice between A & B. You are saying he will decide whichever one is the same as x. Therefore, I'd like to know what will happen if Pete attempts to choose y to be a value other than what x is?

Who wrote down what x is? Did God? Or did God tell someone else to write it down and show it to Pete? The point is if God allowed Pete to know the foreknowledge, it must be because he knows Pete will choose that y is equal to x. Because God is omniscient, he knows what will happen. He would not tell Pete that he will choose y=x unless Pete actually was going to choose y=x. He wouldn't lie to Pete.
It doesn't matter who wrote down the value of x. All that matters is that it is documented so it can be objectively measured prior to the value of y being established.

I know Pete can freely choose A or B, and also that y could not equal to x. I'm saying if God knows that it will be y=x, then it will be y=x. The first to be assigned value is the x of course, since it occurs in time before y does.
By that logic, Pete cannot make a free will decision between A & B.

Where is the conflict here? Pete can freely choose A or B regardless of whether or not God knows what he'll choose, right? Then it follows that God's omniscience has no effect on Pete's free will.
The conflict is x is given a value of A or B prior to y being given a value of A or B by an independent free will agent, then x & y cannot always be equal to each other.
 
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Hakan101

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So you are saying Pete cannot make a free choice between A & B. You are saying he will decide whichever one is the same as x. Therefore, I'd like to know what will happen if Pete attempts to choose y to be a value other than what x is?

It doesn't matter who wrote down the value of x. All that matters is that it is documented so it can be objectively measured prior to the value of y being established.

By that logic, Pete cannot make a free will decision between A & B.

No I am saying Pete can make a free choice between A or B, and God will know what it is. The problem either ignoring God's omniscience or assuming God is forcing Pete's choice.

For example you ask "What will happen if Pete attempts to choose y to be a value other than what x is?" This implies that Pete has foreknowledge of his choice shared by God, and that God is not omniscient and did not know Pete was going to attempt something different. But this is not true. Because God is omniscient, if he shares his foreknowledge with Pete, it is because he knows Pete is going to make that choice of his own free will. Pete is not suddenly going to have a change in personality and decide to rebel against God in a spur of the moment. God knows Pete's heart, he knows what choices Pete will make. The idea that Pete would make a sudden contradictory choice is a human invention, it is not even worth God thinking about. But this does not mean he decides the choices Pete will make.

The importance of the writing down of x is that God permitted it to happen. This means he knows that Pete would not violate the foreknowledge if he knew it. It is not a magic piece of paper that seals Pete's choice.

The conflict is x is given a value of A or B prior to y being given a value of A or B by an independent free will agent, then x & y cannot always be equal to each other.

Where is the conflict here? Why do you say x and y cannot always be equal? In human terms it is very unlikely that we would always know what will happen in the future, but it is not unreasonable that an omniscient God would. One main reason we would be constrained by omniscience is that we are bound by time, we are not in the future and cannot know what is there. But God is not bound by time, he created it. For him to say x will equal y is the same as saying x does equal y or x did equal y, because God is not just perceiving it as yet to happen, but also as happening and already happened. It makes no sense to equate a timeless omniscient perception with mind control.

An underlying theme I have seen in your responses is that for us to have free will, God must make incorrect prophecy. Not just that it's possible he could, but that he must. But why?
 
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GrayAngel

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If God is omniscient, there are only two options:

x=A, y=A
x=B, y=B

The question isn't whether or not God can be made wrong, it's whether or not x allows for the freedom of y.

I don't believe there is. If you say that x is always equal to y, then once x has been decided, then y has been etched in stone. x, then must be the cause of y. Unless God was ignorant of the future at the beginning of creation, then everything y ever will be is the result of His x. But if He was ignorant, then there is no x.
 
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Hakan101

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If God is omniscient, there are only two options:

x=A, y=A
x=B, y=B

The question isn't whether or not God can be made wrong, it's whether or not x allows for the freedom of y.

I don't believe there is. If you say that x is always equal to y, then once x has been decided, then y has been etched in stone. x, then must be the cause of y. Unless God was ignorant of the future at the beginning of creation, then everything y ever will be is the result of His x. But if He was ignorant, then there is no x.

I think I understand now. We only have free will within the constraints God gives us. So not "absolute" free will. Is that right?
 
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GrayAngel

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I think I understand now. We only have free will within the constraints God gives us. So not "absolute" free will. Is that right?

I don't know how our will could be only partially free, but maybe. I don't think free will is at all possible, though. I believe in predestination.
 
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Cieza

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No I am saying Pete can make a free choice between A or B, and God will know what it is. The problem either ignoring God's omniscience or assuming God is forcing Pete's choice.

For example you ask "What will happen if Pete attempts to choose y to be a value other than what x is?" This implies that Pete has foreknowledge of his choice shared by God, and that God is not omniscient and did not know Pete was going to attempt something different. But this is not true. Because God is omniscient, if he shares his foreknowledge with Pete, it is because he knows Pete is going to make that choice of his own free will. Pete is not suddenly going to have a change in personality and decide to rebel against God in a spur of the moment. God knows Pete's heart, he knows what choices Pete will make. The idea that Pete would make a sudden contradictory choice is a human invention, it is not even worth God thinking about. But this does not mean he decides the choices Pete will make.
You completely evaded the question. Once again: Therefore, I'd like to know what will happen if Pete attempts to choose y to be a value other than what x is?

The importance of the writing down of x is that God permitted it to happen. This means he knows that Pete would not violate the foreknowledge if he knew it. It is not a magic piece of paper that seals Pete's choice.

You also didn't answer which happens first:
x is assigned a value
y is assigned a value
x and y are assigned a value at the same time


Where is the conflict here? Why do you say x and y cannot always be equal? In human terms it is very unlikely that we would always know what will happen in the future, but it is not unreasonable that an omniscient God would. One main reason we would be constrained by omniscience is that we are bound by time, we are not in the future and cannot know what is there. But God is not bound by time, he created it. For him to say x will equal y is the same as saying x does equal y or x did equal y, because God is not just perceiving it as yet to happen, but also as happening and already happened. It makes no sense to equate a timeless omniscient perception with mind control.
x & y cannot always be equal because Pete can freely choose y to be A or B. You can't have x be a function of y and simultaneously y be a function of x. Pick your poison.

An underlying theme I have seen in your responses is that for us to have free will, God must make incorrect prophecy. Not just that it's possible he could, but that he must. But why?
As there is a conflict, then we know either free will or omniscience is not real. Since I have never observed omniscience and have had first hand experience of free will, it must be omniscience that is not real.

If you believe you are right, then provide some evidence that omniscience is real and our free will decisions are merely an illusion to us.
 
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Cieza

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If God is omniscient, there are only two options:

x=A, y=A
x=B, y=B

The question isn't whether or not God can be made wrong, it's whether or not x allows for the freedom of y.

I don't believe there is. If you say that x is always equal to y, then once x has been decided, then y has been etched in stone. x, then must be the cause of y. Unless God was ignorant of the future at the beginning of creation, then everything y ever will be is the result of His x. But if He was ignorant, then there is no x.
Is x a function of y or is y a function of x?
 
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Hakan101

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EDIT: Second thought, I found something here that sort of summarizes what I've been trying to say in the first place. What do you guys think?

"A being with free will, given two options A and B, can freely choose between A and B.
God is omniscient (all-knowing).
God knows I will choose A.
God cannot be wrong, since an omniscient being cannot have false knowledge.
From 3 and 4, I will choose A and cannot choose B.
From 1 and 5, omniscience and free will cannot co-exist.

Premises 1 and 2 in the outline above are the main premises to the argument and are not disputed. The Christian worldview argues that every human being is a free moral agent and is capable of making choices simply by exercising their will, not under compulsion or because of instinct. Also, it is a long held doctrine of Christianity that God is all-knowing. The Bible says that God knows "the end from the beginning (Isaiah 46:10)." For omniscience to be truly knowledgeable it must be correct knowledge, so premise number 4 is also granted.

However, point number 5 is where the logic falters. Those who argue in this manner make the mistake of thinking that because God possesses knowledge about a specific matter, then he has influenced it. That does not follow at all. Just because God can foresee which choice you will make, it does not mean you couldn't still freely choose the other option.

Let me give you an example. I have a five year old son. If I were to leave a chocolate chip cookie on the table about a hour before dinner time and my son was to walk by and see it, I know that he would pick up the cookie and eat it. I did not force him to make that decision. In fact, I don't even have to be in the room at all. I think I know my son well enough, though, to tell you that if I come back into the kitchen the cookie will be gone. His act was made completely free of my influence, but I knew what his actions would be.

In examining the argument, the assumption is made in premise 3 that because God knows I will choose A somehow denies me the choice of B. That is the premise that Christianity rejects. Omniscience and free will are not incompatible and it is a non-sequitor to claim otherwise."
 
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GrayAngel

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When I see all these numbers and letters, turning the situation into mathematical form, it really starts to lose me after a while. It's just requires too much energy to keep up with it.

But I wanted to reiterate what I said earlier real quick.

x=A, y=A
x=B, y=B

To us, there are two or more possible outcomes for each choice we make. But like I said, y will always be equal to x. So then, in reality there is only one possibility: x=A, y=A. It's just that we don't know what A is going to be until after the fact.

If x and y are always the same, then the above can be simplified, and it will always be true.

x=y

I could say, I have the choice to choose blue Kool-Aid or red Kool-Aid. And whichever one I choose will be the one God knew I would take. But this is like saying that the planet Saturn has the same name as the now dissolved car company Saturn: it's backwards. My choosing did not lead to God knowing. God's knowledge came first, then my choosing.
 
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Hakan101

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When I see all these numbers and letters, turning the situation into mathematical form, it really starts to lose me after a while. It's just requires too much energy to keep up with it.

But I wanted to reiterate what I said earlier real quick.

x=A, y=A
x=B, y=B

To us, there are two or more possible outcomes for each choice we make. But like I said, y will always be equal to x. So then, in reality there is only one possibility: x=A, y=A. It's just that we don't know what A is going to be until after the fact.

If x and y are always the same, then the above can be simplified, and it will always be true.

x=y

I could say, I have the choice to choose blue Kool-Aid or red Kool-Aid. And whichever one I choose will be the one God knew I would take. But this is like saying that the planet Saturn has the same name as the now dissolved car company Saturn: it's backwards. My choosing did not lead to God knowing. God's knowledge came first, then my choosing.

Right. I'm saying that God's knowledge came first, but it did not lead to your choosing. It simply came first, it was not the cause of your choosing. I think the Saturn analogy needs more fleshing out, it's not quite the same (also it confused me a bit cause the planet was named after the Roman god).

If God's watching you decide between Kool-Aid, you can choose blue or red, but God knows your heart and thoughts, meaning he knows which flavor you like better and which one you'll decide on. But he's not forcing you to pick either one, or denying you from picking either one. You pick it out of your own preference.
 
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