The "niddah laws" or whatever are OT regulations and rules meant as worship and disciplinary actions for the OT people of God.
Homosexuality is a SIN. It's not just some rule..it's something DETESTABLE to God and is a SIN. That's the difference.
Thank you for replying. But you are wrong. Let's look at Leviticus 18, and the laws about sexual morality:
[BIBLE]Leviticus 18:1-30[/BIBLE]
Verses 6-18 forbid incest. Verse 19 forbids sex with a wife during her niddah. Verse 20 forbids adultery. Verse 21 fobids child sacrifice to Molech. Verse 22 forbids "man-lying." Verse 23 forbids bestiality.
The niddah laws are smack dab in the middle of the sexual immorality laws, between incest and adultery. After the subject changes to Molech worship, "man-lying" and bestiality are added as an afterthought. But God isn't forgetful, so the order must serve a purpose.
I am not so arrogant as to be able to proclaim that purpose, but many people see these actions not as afterthoughts added to the sexual immorality laws, but as part of the idolotrous worship of Molech.
And look at Chapter 20:
[BIBLE]Leviticus 20:1-27[/BIBLE]
Sacrifice to Molech has been moved to the introductory paragraph. Just as in Romans, the "vile affections" are tied into a general failure to recognize God, and to idolatry, so here. In this chapter, the niddah laws (verse 18) and the "man-lying" (verse 13) and bestiality (verses 15-16)laws are all included in the middle of the incest laws.
Again, I do not claim this is "the" way to understand this fact, but some people claim that the other three laws are folded into the incest laws to show that all four (five if you include adultery) situations are equally sinful.
In any case, there is no basis in the Scripture itself to assume that the niddah laws are "OT ceremonial laws" while at the same time proclaiming that the "man-lying" law is a sexual immoarality law. Leviticus 18 seems to suggest that, if anything, it should be the other way 'round. Leviticus 20 seems to say that they are both equally sexually immoral.
Some peple try to make the claim that you can make the distinction because moral laws are repeated in the NT, but ceremonial laws are not. If that is true, then once again the niddah law is a moral law, not a ceremonial one. Paul references it in 1 Corinthians 7:1-5. He has said repeatedly in his letters that we are free from the Law if we are in Grace, but that does not mean that we should wallow in sin. Specifically in this passage, he says that a wife's body is her husband's and vice versa. One should not cheat one's spouse of the pleasure that body can give them, "except [it be] with consent for a time, that ye may give yourselves to fasting and prayer." A period of fasting and prayer and abstaining from sex is exactly what is called for in the niddah laws.