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Just to be clear, what is it you are agreeing to? To Question 4? To the condition that because some promises are only for believers, that if a person is not a believer, the promise, and thus my agument, does not apply? To both? To neither?
I guess its fair for you to ask. I have the Holy Spirit to give me interpretation. A person who is filled with the Holy Spirit has wisdom in the word of God compared to someone who has a degree. That person who has a degree in a subject, who does not have the Holy Spirit, just has knowledge. Wisdom over knowledge. My Wisdom is not of my own. Holy Spirit gave me wisdom and understanding.
See wisdom and knowledge are not the same. Knowledge is the definition. Knowledge by itself is nothing. Wisdom is applying the knowledge. Knowledge is not power. What use is knowledge that isn't put into action? Wisdom is power. Wisdom > Knowledge. Not every Scholar has wisdom. Some went to school. The Degree only shows they pass the criteria in school. Doesn't mean they automatically get wisdom. That is why God uses the small to make the big(proud) look bad. To humble the big. If a person doesn't have the Holy Spirit/born again then Colossians 2:2-3 doesn't apply to that person.
so in layman's terms your question states, Jadin are you either a man with a degree or are you stupid?
Do you think im foolish? Without the Holy Spirit?
Unfortunately, in my experience, this isn't true. As a Christian, I believe I am equipped with the Spirit. I disagree with you, who are equipped with the Spirit. You and I disagree with others, who are equipped with the Spirit.
If I want to discover the proper interpretation of a verse, I will go to an individual who has a degree. It is foolishness for the uneducated to assume that they have all the benefits of an education purely through the blessing of the Spirit.
Oh, so that's what you mean.
I'm asking for knowledge about a verse. You don't have it. You have wisdom, but what is wisdom built upon faulty knowledge? Would it not be better to know the truth and not know how to react to it than to react to a falsehood?
I haven't changed my mind. You posted what the dictionary lists as the definition of fornication. I agree with that definition. When I use the word, it's what I mean.
Upon reflection, however, I find it quite likely that 'fornication' is not an entirely accurate translation of the original Greek, and even if it were, it would only be accurate in relation to the status of the institution of marriage in the time of which it was written, and not all institutions of marriage for all time (particularly as the Bible does not explicitly outline a model for marriage, beyond the very general 'man, woman, one flesh', which is coupled with the command to procreate, and which was given to two specific people in the creation myth).
The word for "from fornication" is this definition from Stong's Greek.
porneuo (porn-yoo'-o) From porne; to act the harlot, i.e. (literally) indulge unlawful lust (of either sex), or (figuratively) practise idolatry -- commit (fornication).
Do you see the dashes "--" in that definition? All the words(in red) before those dashes are from the original Greek of the time(1st Century A.D.).
The words after the "--" is what Strong's Greek for modern times use of Greek(2000's).
The James Strong Greek-English is on point. What more can you get out of it? You get the meaning of the word in Jesus time and the times for now. That is awesome. Yes, I get the wisdom and understand from the Holy Spirit. James Strong's teachings is just a bonus. You don't need a degree in Greek to understand the Greek in Jesus' time. James Strong helps you do that.
If you still don't believe then I'm not the one to convince. I can only plant the seed. God is the one who waters the seed. I'm not forcing you to believe or not to believe. Make your own decision. Fornication in context back then is the same as of now thanks to Strong. Now from Strong's greek to a regular greek dictionary is different. The regular greek dictionary of today is only going to show the meaning of today's usage of the Greek language. A scholar's dictionary of Greek is different.
Unlawful according to what law?
This is an important sentence in your argument, and unfortunately, it is illegible. If you mean to say that the words in blue are the modern use, then it is lunacy to apply modern definitions to an older word.
I see nothing in the red text that specifically refers to pre-marital sex. 'Unlawful' is a terribly broad word.
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Part of the value a degree would provide would be to enhance one's understanding of language. There's more to translation than converting words.
You're using conversion language to speak of your opinion in an argument. How can you be so sure you're right?
Part of the value a degree would provide would be to enhance one's understanding of language. There's more to translation than converting words.
Hebrews 13:8 (New International Version)
8Jesus Christ is the same yesterday and today and forever.
God doesn't change his principles.
In the OT, fornication is the same as NT in meaning.
It is the same as of today. Maybe the laws of the land, now, don't punish such activities as back then. That doesn't mean God is pleased and honors with fornication. God is still against sex before marriage.
If I told you "Caballos" isn't it the same as "Horse"? One is in Spanish and the other is English. The only difference in the two is the language. The meaning is the same.
I'm not so concern for the "appearance" of Greek words. I am more concern with the "meaning" of the Greek words.
How can I be sure what James Strong's saids? If he is wrong then his study in the language is in vain. It all comes down to faith, my friend. Everyone that is reading this post understand what faith is. I never saw Jesus. Nor have you. I'm believing by faith He is the Messiah/God that was prophesied in the Tanakh. Do I have tangible proof that he is the Messiah? No, I don't. Some say it is blind faith. I say if I died I am hoping and believe that this Jesus will give me salvation. If Christianity isn't true when we die then he have done this in vain, but I will still believe. My proof is on my feeling the Holy Spirit in my life. That is my proof.
Same concept of the people that lived before us. If Strong is incorrect than it is all in vain KJV, NKJV, NIV, CEV, NLT, etc translating the OT and NT. If the translations are incorrect then do we really have salvation from God?
I'm believing by faith that Strong's understanding the 1st Century A.D. Greek Language is correct. Because of Strong's Greek I am able to read the OT and NT and understand Salvation is only through Jesus. When the Scribes kept writing and translating, God was making sure his word exists in correct meaning on earth.
No matter what language, God is behind it. Beside's Strong's school education, God made sure Strong understood His(God's) word in Hebrew/Greek. If you don't have faith that God was behind/helping Strong's understanding of the Hebrew/Greek language of the time, then that is your decision.
Jesus Christ did the same thing to the Jews(Judaism) who didn't believe him. He called them stiff-neck for unbelief. I don't know what else to tell you but do the research yourself and hope that God shows it to you.
That's what the James Strong's Hebrew/Greek translator is. It not only converts the words but also the meaning/context/translations of the words. Its really if you believe his word or not. Your belief and Mine is not require to make James Strong's Greek valid. He did is dues in learning at school. His Greek is accurate to the original Greek.
You have agreed with the current definition of "fornication". I have given you the original Greek definition of "fornication". They are so close that I didn't notice any difference in of that defintion on fornication.
What? You said that the 'blue' part of your definition was the modern definition. The only part that said that the original Greek word meant 'to commit formication' was the modern usage. That certainly isn't an indication that that is what was meant in the original.
At best, it forbids 'unlawful' sex, and that is a terribly broad concept.
You just said that the original Greek for that word meant 'male prostitutes'. Perhaps that is all Paul meant: prostitutes who worked in the local temples, and NOT those who had pre-marital sex?
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