Hi tigger,
You asked a question and I'm anxious to hear the response:
Isn't homelessness virtually nonexistent in history 'when' opportunity for creating a better life is available as it is in the U.S.?
Is homelessness virtually nonexistent 'when' opportunity for creating a better life is available? Is there some historical evidence that would show that's a true statement?
I offer:
In 2016, it estimated there were 255,000
homeless people in
England alone, a figure it subsequently adjusted to 294,000 for
Britain. This rose to 307,000 in 2017.Nov 21, 2018.
Is it your contention that Great Britain must not have opportunities for creating a better life? Or is your claim questionable?
It is estimated that some 35k people are homeless in Sweden. Does Sweden not offer opportunities for creating a better life? Before you say that 35k is a negligible amount, thereby possibly proving your point, the overall population of Sweden is about 9 million. The overall population of NYC is about 8 million. There really isn't a whole lot of difference in the per capita totals.
In fact, Russia, which I would think most people would think of as a nation that doesn't offer opportunities for creating a better life, at least not like the U.S., has a homeless population that is much, much lower than ours. Russia claims to only have about 65k people homeless on any given night, while the U.S. offers up 554k people that are homeless on that same night.
Surprisingly, or not, Japan wins!!! They not only have the least violent citizens, but about the lowest per capita rate of homelessness. Japan claims that only some 5k people are on the streets on a given night and with a population of some 127 million, that equates to about .0039%. Maybe we could get President Trump to listen (hahahahahahahahah, like that would ever happen) to Abe.
So, I'd be interested in reviewing your evidence that would lead you to ask such a rhetorical question?
God bless,
In Christ, ted