Holy “Spirit”? Wrong. That’s Not His Name.

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JAL

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This is the only part of your posts that isn't illogical and heterodox.

Pnuema is the Greek word substitute for the Hebrew ruach,however, as Strong's Greek concordance has shown. Ruach in the OT referred to different things then does the NT use of the word, therefore, your theory is still illogical.
No sir. Acts 2 (as it cites Joel's promise of the Holy Breath) is a good enough example. Here Joel's reference to the Holy Ruach is translated directly into the NT Holy Pneuma.

Even if the NT didn't avail itself of the full range of usages of ruach, it did avail itself of the one in question here - the title of the Third Person.
 
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Tarshish

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And yet no one is producing any noteworthy refutations of my proofs. How telling.

The point is very simple and it has nothing to do with Plato's philosophy found on… which one of his books?

The point is simply… we or, at least, I do not care.

Firstly because English is not my mother language. (Imagine we were holding this debate about how anything was translated to let's say Toki Pona)

Second the Nicean creed in its original Greek reads (aprox) Kai eis to agion pneuma. (cfr Denzinger #126 / FIC #273 p 201)

So it's not some weird conspiracy to hide the oh-so-terrible Plato philosophy

Thirdly, and more important, this is going to an over-literalist extreme that would make us believe that you who trust in the Lord has wings like an eagle (Psalm 40:31), or that the hills leaped like lambs (I guess that means they have legs) (Psalm 114:4)
 
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James Is Back

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Seriously? You're joking, right? Here I am challenging the mainstream translation of the Greek term pneuma as "Spirit" and you "prove" me wrong by simply telling me that they translated it as "Spirit"?

This WAS a joke, right? Either it was a joke or it proves to me that you guys really CAN'T muster a defense of your position.

Or what am I missing here?

No what is a joke is your unwillingness to accept truth versus your heretical ideology.

Pneuma is the Greek translated word for spirit whether you believe it or not. We explained it but your close minded thinking is clouding your judgement..

This thread is getting tiresome I think all of us should bail. We tried and tried to get through to this guy but he is so head strong that it seems like a worthless endeavor. I say let God handle it and let it be.
 
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JAL

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The point is very simple and it has nothing to do with Plato's philosophy found on… which one of his books?

The point is simply… we or, at least, I do not care.

Firstly because English is not my mother language. (Imagine we were holding this debate about how anything was translated to let's say Toki Pona)

Second the Nicean creed in its original Greek reads (aprox) Kai eis to agion pneuma. (cfr Denzinger #126 / FIC #273 p 201)

So it's not some weird conspiracy to hide the oh-so-terrible Plato philosophy

Thirdly, and more important, this is going to an over-literalist extreme that would make us believe that you who trust in the Lord has wings like an eagle (Psalm 40:31), or that the hills leaped like lambs (I guess that means they have legs) (Psalm 114:4)
I suspect you're trying to write comments without having read much of this thread, as in some cases you seem to be "responding" to points I never made.
 
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ImaginaryDay

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Thirdly, and more important, this is going to an over-literalist extreme that would make us believe that you who trust in the Lord has wings like an eagle (Psalm 40:31), or that the hills leaped like lambs (I guess that means they have legs) (Psalm 114:4)

I pointed out some of the same inconsistencies such as Jeremiah with literal fire burning his bones. I wonder if you will get a reply.
 
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Tarshish

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I suspect you're trying to write comments without having read much of this thread, as in some cases you seem to be "responding" to points I never made.

Well, at least I did respond to some of your points, then. Care about responding to mine?

Which is that Plato philosophy you are against as related in this case?

Where on his books is to be found?
 
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ImaginaryDay

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I suspect you're trying to write comments without having read much of this thread, as in some cases you seem to be "responding" to points I never made.

You made the points about literal presence and not metaphor. I think you need to answer the question. I'm gone for the rest of the day. I'll be back to see where this goes. :)
 
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Strong in Him

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You seem to be saying that the Bible uses the term “faith” in the sense of a leap of faith, that is, jumping to a conclusion without sufficient warrant, that is, to presume a conclusion that I don't really know to be true, as an act of devotion.

I was explaining what I had said before; that if we can SEE someone/thing, we don't need faith to believe in them. If we can't see them, as we can't with God, we have faith, based on what the Bible, and other people, say about him.
Abraham believed, had faith in, God. He couldn't see God, but he clearly knew enough about him that he felt he could trust him. He did not have blind faith; his faith was rooted in God's trustworthiness and goodness. Noah, Jacob, Joseph, Samuel, David, Gideon knew enough about God and his dealings to trust him. They had faith that he existed, because they had not seen him, yet that faith was not groundless; it was rooted in what they knew of God and the relationship they had with him.

So at this point you might want to say, “Jal, I’m not quite ready to articulate my stance on that question” – in which case I’ll be happy to try to bring some of the issues involved into better focus. Fair enough?

I've "articulated my stance on that question." Faith is "being sure of what we hope for and certain of what we do not see," (Heb 11:1).
I am sure of God. The Bible tells me he exists, many Christian friends and clergy tell me he exists and I have read hundreds of Christian books and testimonies from people who discovered he exists. I have also found this out for myself.. The NT says that God is someone we pray to and he will answer - I have done and he did so. He has lead me, helped me, shown me love, filled me with joy and given me gifts through his Holy Spirit. Because of this, I know God. It is still only faith - I cannot produce God and say "here you are", and other people might come up with other explanations for my answered prayer. But I am certain of God, even though I can't see him.

Either way, please don't ignore the question.

What question?
And why do you ignore ours? You say you are certain you know what God's greatest sacrifice was; other Christians assume it was the cross, but you know different. Yet you won't tell us. You say that is easy to prove that God is not infinite, (and earlier you said that you argue only from Scripture), yet you have not done do.

How can you prove, from Scripture, that God is not infinite? And how can you know, from Scripture, what God's greatest sacrifice was?

I've also said that I don't know what Platoism is, and you haven't told me that either.
 
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JAL

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Real relocation... Okay. Is this how scripture defines it?

"The wind blows where it wishes, and you hear its sound, but you do not know where it comes from or where it goes. So it is with everyone who is born of the Spirit.” (Jn. 3:8) - Real location? No. Not in the sense you use it. Besides, as I said before, he is drawing a parallel between physical wind (which we CAN sense) and the Holy Spirit, which was still to come.
I've already addressed John 3 in detail. I demonstrated that such equivocations torture the exegesis. The main point, however, is that John 3 is another example of God making a pointed effort to stress wind in a context dealing with the Holy Wind. Either that's how He meant for us to read it or He's doing His best to confuse the heck out of us. Enough said.


" And suddenly there came from heaven a sound like a mighty rushing wind, and it filled the entire house where they were sitting." (Acts 2:2") Real location? - No. Not in the sense you use it. It's descriptive.
Of course it's descriptive. On this thread I myself was the first to testify that divine Wind is somewhat LIKE earthly wind (the main similarity being their tangibility). The two are not absolutely identical. When earthly wind blows, it makes a sound because it is a tangible substance. Likewise when the Holy Wind blew at Pentecost, it made the same kind of sound because it is a tangible substance. Here again (sigh) God is either (A) trying to TEACH us something about biblical metaphysics OR (B) He is trying to hopelessly confuse, deceive, and mislead us into wrongly supposing a tangible divine Wind. Apparently you Platonists have opted for choice B. Fine, there’s nothing I can do about it.


And divided tongues as of fire appeared to them and rested on each one of them." (Acts 2:3) Real location? Real fire? Burned and singed scalps? No. Of course not.
You ask, real location? Pretty silly question isn’t it? Did you take the time to actually read the verse you just cited? It says that the tongues of fire were seen descending from point A (the sky) and then came to rest on their heads (point B). How is that NOT conveying relocation? Oh I forgot, God wrote the Bible in the most confusing, misleading, deceiving manner so that we are generally better off believing the exact opposite of what it actually says.
Your next two questions go together: “Real fire? Burned and singed scalps?” I’ve already addressed this issue repeatedly. I stated:
(1) divine Wind is merely similar to earthly wind – i.e. equally tangible. They are not identical.
(2) divine Fire is merely similar to earthly fire – i.e. equally tangible. They are not identical.
As I pointed out earlier, divine Fire CAN consume and HAS consumed (as the OT clearly documents) but does not ALWAYS consume (viz. the burning bush). Unlike earthly fire, divine Fire is a person with free-will/self-control who can CHOOSE whether or not to consume.

"If I say, “I will not mention him, or speak any more in his name,” there is in my heart as it were a burning fire shut up in my bones, and I am weary with holding it in, and I cannot." (Jer. 20:9) - Literal fire that burned inside him and consumed him? No. Of course not. It would have killed him. Metaphor. He KNEW the presence of the Spirit with him, but it was not a physical SUBSTANCE in his physical body.
No you haven’t proven it wasn’t a physical substance. I would say that the Fire had a definite impact on his nervous system – arguably somewhat excruciating – without actually disintegrating/burning it up.

You just admitted that the Third Person was within his body. For what purpose? If God were acting magically, instead of as a tangible Hand, He could have exerted the same effect using hocus-pocus from a distance, there would never be any POINT in invading our bodies. There would be no point in furnishing outpourings of the Holy Wind.

No. As much as we would love to fit spiritual things into a neat box where we can intellectually understand every last iota of how God operates, at one point or another He is going to confound our thinking. But to have it be on the level of understanding the nature and working of the Holy Spirit (even on a basic level) is... wow...
Again (sigh), you can’t make an unintelligible assertion (viz. that piece of matter is both a material and immaterial substance) and then call it a Doctrine, much less a defensible one.
 
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JAL

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Well, at least I did respond to some of your points, then.
Not to my satisfaction. I didn't sense any appreciation for the significant number of passages that I analyzed in corroborating my conclusions.

Care about responding to mine?
Not particularly.

Which is that Plato philosophy you are against as related in this case? Where on his books is to be found?
I'm not a Platonic scholar, but it is my understanding (based on Frederick Copleston's writings perused about 30 years ago) that he is the father of immaterialism in the sense of largely pioneering a distinction between material and immaterial things.

You're free to prove me wrong. I extend the same challenge to you as I did to everyone else - show me a cogent, substantial biblical basis for immaterialism. Until then, I remain persuaded that it originated in philosophers such as Plato. (Descartes wasn't much help either).
 
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Tarshish

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You're free to prove me wrong. I extend the same challenge to you as I did to everyone else - show me a cogent, substantial biblical basis for immaterialism. Until then, I remain persuaded that it originated in philosophers such as Plato. (Descartes wasn't much help either).


εν αρχη ην ο λογος και ο λογος ην προς τον θεον και θεος ην ο λογος

John 1:1

1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

2 The same was in the beginning with God.

3 All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made.

4 In him was life; and the life was the light of men.

5 And the light shineth in darkness; and the darkness comprehended it not.

6 There was a man sent from God, whose name was John.

7 The same came for a witness, to bear witness of the Light, that all men through him might believe.

8 He was not that Light, but was sent to bear witness of that Light.

9 That was the true Light, which lighteth every man that cometh into the world.

10 He was in the world, and the world was made by him, and the world knew him not.

11 He came unto his own, and his own received him not.

---

1. Suppose somebody came and claimed the Jesus was literally light, i.e. an electromagnetic radiation within the visible Spectrum. Would you agree?

2. The word logos in Greek can either mean word or knowledge, even reason. Indeed it's the root for words such as logic. What if I insisted that God was a word (which is pretty immaterial enough, but that's beyond the point)
 
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JAL

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I was explaining what I had said before; that if we can SEE someone/thing, we don't need faith to believe in them. If we can't see them, as we can't with God, we have faith, based on what the Bible, and other people, say about him.

Abraham believed, had faith in, God. He couldn't see God, but he clearly knew enough about him that he felt he could trust him. He did not have blind faith; his faith was rooted in God's trustworthiness and goodness. Noah, Jacob, Joseph, Samuel, David, Gideon knew enough about God and his dealings to trust him. They had faith that he existed, because they had not seen him, yet that faith was not groundless; it was rooted in what they knew of God and the relationship they had with him.



I've "articulated my stance on that question." Faith is "being sure of what we hope for and certain of what we do not see," (Heb 11:1).
I am sure of God. The Bible tells me he exists, many Christian friends and clergy tell me he exists and I have read hundreds of Christian books and testimonies from people who discovered he exists. I have also found this out for myself.. The NT says that God is someone we pray to and he will answer - I have done and he did so. He has lead me, helped me, shown me love, filled me with joy and given me gifts through his Holy Spirit. Because of this, I know God. It is still only faith - I cannot produce God and say "here you are", and other people might come up with other explanations for my answered prayer. But I am certain of God, even though I can't see him.



What question?
And why do you ignore ours? You say you are certain you know what God's greatest sacrifice was; other Christians assume it was the cross, but you know different. Yet you won't tell us. You say that is easy to prove that God is not infinite, (and earlier you said that you argue only from Scripture), yet you have not done do.

How can you prove, from Scripture, that God is not infinite? And how can you know, from Scripture, what God's greatest sacrifice was?

I've also said that I don't know what Platoism is, and you haven't told me that either.

I asked you a pretty straightforward question because I'm trying to figure out where you stand. I asked, You seem to be saying that the Bible uses the term “faith” in the sense of a leap of faith, that is, jumping to a conclusion without sufficient warrant, that is, to presume a conclusion that I don't really know to be true, as an act of devotion.

I ask again, Yes or No, is this appropriate behavior. Your writing seems to suggest Yes, but I'd like to get a definite affirmative on that before proceeding. Because I can't really respond to your posts if I don't know where you stand.


You keep asking me to cover certain topics. I've already covered a lot of ground on this thread, I've spent a lot of time and done a lot of writing. I'm sorry I can't cover all possible topics in full.


And it's hard to invest the time in all possible topics if I don't feel I'm seeing much open-mindedness. I don't think most Christians really WANT reform. Maybe it's just easier to remain in our comfort zones than mustering the effort to reevaluate traditional thinking. I'm sure everyone will deny this - but the fact remains I have to decide for myself whether I'm seeing sufficient openness to cover all the topics.
 
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Targaryen

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εν αρχη ην ο λογος και ο λογος ην προς τον θεον και θεος ην ο λογος

John 1:1

1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

2 The same was in the beginning with God.

3 All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made.

4 In him was life; and the life was the light of men.

5 And the light shineth in darkness; and the darkness comprehended it not.

6 There was a man sent from God, whose name was John.

7 The same came for a witness, to bear witness of the Light, that all men through him might believe.

8 He was not that Light, but was sent to bear witness of that Light.

9 That was the true Light, which lighteth every man that cometh into the world.

10 He was in the world, and the world was made by him, and the world knew him not.

11 He came unto his own, and his own received him not.

---

1. Suppose somebody came and claimed the Jesus was literally light, i.e. an electromagnetic radiation within the visible Spectrum. Would you agree?

2. The word logos in Greek can either mean word or knowledge, even reason. Indeed it's the root for words such as logic. What if I insisted that God was a word (which is pretty immaterial enough, but that's beyond the point)

I hope he actually answers these questions without more random illogical leaps.
 
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JAL

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εν αρχη ην ο λογος και ο λογος ην προς τον θεον και θεος ην ο λογος

John 1:1

1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

2 The same was in the beginning with God.

3 All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made.

4 In him was life; and the life was the light of men.

5 And the light shineth in darkness; and the darkness comprehended it not.

6 There was a man sent from God, whose name was John.

7 The same came for a witness, to bear witness of the Light, that all men through him might believe.

8 He was not that Light, but was sent to bear witness of that Light.

9 That was the true Light, which lighteth every man that cometh into the world.

10 He was in the world, and the world was made by him, and the world knew him not.

11 He came unto his own, and his own received him not.

---

1. Suppose somebody came and claimed the Jesus was literally light, i.e. an electromagnetic radiation within the visible Spectrum. Would you agree?
Absolutely I would agree that God is a physical, radiant light that can illuminate any dark room. And He is as tangible as any light quanta. But not knowing much about physics, I personally wouldn't be able to comment on the specifics of the electromagnetic spectrum, so given this ignorance, I would here again limit my assessment to merely asserting that divine Light is very similar to earthly light (i.e. equally tangible) but not absolutely identical to it. Need some biblical proof? There's PLENTY.
Moses went up the mountain to fellowship with God. When he came down, His face shone with the divine Light. Unfortunately it was too bright for Israel’s eyeballs so Moses had to put a physical veil over his face. This proves that it was a tangible light, because a physical veil could not have managed to restrain an immaterial light. Material objects could have no tangible impact on/collision with immaterial substances, nor vice versa. Objects capable of collision are called tangible objects.



Want more biblical proof of the divine Light? But what’s the point? When it comes to metaphysics, you Platonists don’t believe what the Bible says. Platonists believe Plato. Period.
 
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Tarshish

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Well, let's begin with something basic:

light (or indeed anything material) can travel any faster that c; i.e. the speed of light

so God's thoughts could not then travel any faster than the speed of light

and then light does not think, nor speaks, nor anything like that.

===

Oh, and what about the Logos thing. Doesn't that seem immaterial enough?


* Lastly, go and study Plato, please, you don't have to agree with him, I certainly don't. Go to the source and learn, that's what I told to my students.
 
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JAL

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Strong in Him said:
You say that is easy to prove that God is not infinite, (and earlier you said that you argue only from Scripture), yet you have not done do.

How can you prove, from Scripture, that God is not infinite?
Actually I didn't say that I argue ONLY from Scripture. I said I always argue from Scripture, meaning there is always some biblical underpinnings to my arguments. But Scripture isn't my only source of data - science is another, for example.

Anywho, there's several Greek words for love, one of them being agape. Unselfish love. This kind of love does more than use affectionate language. It acts self-sacrificially on your behalf. It intervenes to help you. This isn't potential succor, it's actual assistance. It's action.

If God's love were infinite, therefore, there would be no limits to the extent of His self-sacrificial efforts on behalf of His living creatures. No one would go to hell. Rejecting Christ is a sin, but He would have fully atoned for that sin as well. He would have fully atoned even for satan and all his demons.

I do not see how this can be regarded as infinite love. My view is this - God is a finite being who has been, all along, fully exhausting/realizing His capacity for love. He holds nothing back. He loves His creation to the fullest possible extent that He is capable of. And He is the ONLY one who has ever fully realized his potential for love. Unfortunately it's not an infinite capacity/supply.
 
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JAL

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Well, let's begin with something basic:

light (or indeed anything material) can travel any faster that c; i.e. the speed of light

so God's thoughts could not then travel any faster than the speed of light

and then light does not think, nor speaks, nor anything like that.
Utterly absurd. You are flatly ignoring my assertion that divine Light is not identical to earthy light and is therefore unsubject to its limitations such as speed-limitations. You are creating a strawman and knocking it down.

Oh, and what about the Logos thing. Doesn't that seem immaterial enough?
Absolutely not. I proved earlier that the divine Word is clearly depicted in Scripture as a physical substance departing from God's mouth. It's not my fault you didn't read the whole thread.

* Lastly, go and study Plato, please, you don't have to agree with him, I certainly don't. Go to the source and learn, that's what I told to my students.
Sorry, not particularly interested. Still waiting for someone on this thread to stipulate a biblical basis for immaterialism.
 
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