ForceofTime
Type, Pray, Edit, Repeat...
Read the passage in a wider context, it is the "holy law" that aggravates the flesh to sin .
...Or maybe sin, through flesh, 'took occasion' to propagate itself through a holy law.
Did Jesus, being holy, aggravate the Pharisees to sin, or aggravate Judas into a son of perdition, or aggravate greater judgment on Chorazin and Bethsaida? Well in that case, yes, it could be said He did; but was it because He was holy or because they were evil in flesh? The parable excerpt in Matthew comes to mind:
Matthew 20:15 KJV Is it not lawful for me to do what I will with mine own? Is thine eye evil, because I am good?
knowing this i choose a more spiritually efficient solution .
Good. So did Paul:
Romans 7:25 KJV I thank God through Jesus Christ our Lord. So then with the mind I myself serve the law of God; but with the flesh the law of sin.
And as he further explains in chapter 8, the flesh being dead allows him to properly follow that holy law in Christ Jesus in the Spirit which was impossible for him to do before.
the Holy Spirit who guides us all into all truth .
And the Holy Spirit, being holy, does just that; so then, how can a holy law speak falsely? Can we say the holy law is not truth simply because it aggravates sin in the flesh? But does a holy law also aggravate the mind and the Spirit to sin? "God forbid."
Upvote
0