Since you didn't bother to use any scripture to back up you opinions, I am not going to address all your speculation, but I will address a few, first the above.
Does God not say "Come let us reason together" ?
Provide scripture to back up the lack of scripture?
That makes no sense!
In this case, it is a logical fallacy to require that one prove the negative. I would have to prevent every last scripture in the bible, one by one, and point out "it isn't stated in that scripture!"
That would be rediculous for you or anyone to require.
The burden of proof falls on the one who claims that the scripture explicitly states that the Holy Spirit is
- Co-equal with the Father and SOn
- Co-Eternal with the Father and Son
- Co-Eternally PREexisting with the Father and Son
You would need to provide those scriptures. You have failed to do so. Let's look:
We know that the Holy Spirit is Gods Spirit by the following:
1Th 4:8
(8) He therefore that despiseth, despiseth not man, but God, who hath also given unto us his Holy Spirit.
A straw man. I never once said anything about whether or not the Holy Spirit is God's Spirit . . but after looking at what you said, I have to question what you mean by this. Do you mean that the Holy Spirit is God's Spirit in the same way your spirit is yours?
But this was not what I was talking about or posted about.
He is also refered to as the Sprit of Christ:
1Pe 1:11
(11) Searching what, or what manner of time the Spirit of Christ which was in them did signify, when it testified beforehand the sufferings of Christ, and the glory that should follow.[/U]
Again, this was not what I was talking about or posted about.
This is a strawman.
You are not yet addressing what I said.
And we all know that Jesus is God:
Joh 1:1
(1) In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God......................(14) And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth.
This speaks of Jesus, the Word that was in the beginning . . the beginning of what exactly?
The Word that was with God and was God. The Word that was made flesh and dwelt among us . . the God-Man.
Where does this say anything about the Holy Spirit?
It doesn't.
This does not address anything I said about the Holy Spirit.
So far you are batting ZERO as far as providing scriptures which say the Holy Spirit is
- Co-equal with the Father and SOn
- Co-Eternal with the Father and Son
- Co-Eternally PREexisting with the Father and Son
We also have this reference to the trinty:
Mat 28:19
(19) Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost:
Where does it say here that the Holy Spirit is
- Co-equal with the Father and SOn
- Co-Eternal with the Father and Son
- Co-Eternally PREexisting with the Father and Son
???
And this one:
1Jo 5:7-8
(7) For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one.
(8) And there are three that bear witness in earth, the spirit, and the water, and the blood: and these three agree in one.
HOW are they one?
It doesn't say at all. 
Unitarians believe this unity is not Three Divine Persons, One essence, substance, but they believe in a unity of
PURPOSE.
These two concepts are very different.
This scripture
does not tell us HOW they are "one" . . it is open to interpretation.
There is nothing explicit.
There is nothing here that explicity tells us that the Holy Spirit is
- Co-equal with the Father and SOn
- Co-Eternal with the Father and Son
- Co-Eternally PREexisting with the Father and Son
That is weak speculation at best. Different greek writers still had access to the same greek words. Why not specify that they were cousins if that is what they were. You are saying that the bible doesn't mean what it says, because it doesn't agree with your doctrine
There is no speculation at all, and there is nothing weak about it. It is a fact that different people choose to use different ways to express themselves. . . and God's word is big enough and grand enough to make room for various different ways of expressing the same idea.
Why are you limiting God like this? Why are you trying to put God and His scriptures into such a small box?
Except this one:
Gal 1:18-19
(18) Then after three years I went up to Jerusalem to see Peter, and abode with him fifteen days.
(19) But other of the apostles saw I none, save James the Lord's brother.
Except what one? You are looking at an English translation . . so what? What is the word in the Greek? Not anything that mandates we understand that James is a blood brother from Mary. . this is your requirement. But the Greek does not require that understanding at all.
Again, the bible doesn't really mean what it says
According to who? See, give 100 different people the scriptures, and you will come away with 100 different interpretations on various points . ..
Really mean what is says to who exactly? You?
How did you become the final arbiter of what the sacred scriptures are really saying? Are you infallible in your understanding of scripture? Who made you so?
See, your statement is fallacious as it implies that the scripture is perfectly clear when taken on an extremely superficial level, when it is far from perfectly clear when it is examined more deeply, and a superficial approach is abandoned.
Are you willing to abandon the type of superficial reading of scripture you are relying on for your opinion of what scripture says?
Here is what the Greek word translated "brother" there is used for:
From
An Expository Dictionary of New Testament Words:
Adelphos (the Greek word for “brother” in the New Testament): denotes a brother, or near kinsman; in the plural, a community based on identity or origin of life. It is used for:
male children of the same parents
male descendants of the same parents, Acts 7:23, 26; Hebrews 7:5
people of the same nationality, Acts 3:17, 22; Romans 9:3
any man, a neighbor, Luke 10:29; Matthew 5:22, 7:3
persons united by a common interest, Matthew 5:47
persons united by a common calling, Revelation 22:9
mankind, Matthew 25:40; Hebrews 2:17
the disciples, and so, by implication, all believers, Matthew 28:10, John 20:17
believers, apart from sex, Matthew 23:8; Acts 1:15; Romans 1:13; 1 Thessalonians 1:4; Revelation 19:10 (the word sisters is used of believers, only in 1 Timothy 5:2)
...... Matthew 13:55 where James and Jude are referred to as Jesus’ brothers. However, if you add in your analysis Matthew 27:56, Mark 15:40, and John 19:25,
you’ll see that they are called sons of Mary, wife of Clopas. Most argue that Clopas and Joseph, Jesus’ foster father, were related,
which makes James and Jude Jesus’ cousins or other near relative. But not His brothers.
http://72.14.253.104/search?q=cache...for+"blood+brothers"&hl=en&gl=us&ct=clnk&cd=7
So you see, there is
nothing mandating that this word means James was a blood brother of Jesus from Mary.
That is a silly argument.
]
LOL no! It is NOT!
Jesus was speaking to the people who where with Him when He said those words .. He was not speaking to you unless you can prove you were there, standing there with Him.
It is a very
COGENT argument . it is silly to try to repudiate something so basic.
Were you there when this was written;
1Pe 1:9
(9) Receiving the end of your faith, even the salvation of your souls.
No? I guess that doesnt' apply to you.
This is sheer logical fallacy. Of course this was written to a certain group of believers, and it has teaching that is helpful to all believers, and so we can apply that teaching to our lives as is appropriate.
However, this does not involve a promise given by Jesus directly and personally to a group of men.
You are making false comparison, treating all scripture as though it is equal and of equal application to all. That just ain't so.
For that matter, every letter in the new testemant was written to a particular church or person. I guess you can throw them all out to.
And you continue with the same logical fallacy.
Tell me, when Jesus said to the rich young ruler, "sell everything you have, give it to the poor, and follow Me", as He speaking all this personally to you too?
Have you sold everything you have and given it to the poor?
Obviously you have not, for you are sitting at a computer, talking to me.
Jesus said to pluck out your eye if it causes you to sin . . have you done that?
Jesus put mud on a blind man's eyes and told him to go wash in the pool of Shilom . .. does that mean that if you were to go blind you should put mud on your eyes and go wash in the pool of Shilom?
When you paid your taxes last, did you go get a fish and open its mouth to find the money you needed to pay the tax? That's what Jesus told Peter to do! Why doesn't this apply directly to you?
Jesus spoke some very specific things to specific people, as did the writers of the NT. That does not mean they apply directly and personally to us.
You are taking the overly simplistic approach to interpretation of scripture. This is a very superficial approach and prone to much error in undersanding.
The Holy Spirit is your teacher, your friend and the seal of your salvation.
The Holy Spirit is not the only teacher God has given personally to me. He has given His Church, which the scriptures call the Pillar and Foundation of the Truth.
The scriptures never make such a claim about themselves!
If not:
Rom 8:9
(9) But ye are not in the flesh, but in the Spirit, if so be that the Spirit of God dwell in you. Now if any man have not the Spirit of Christ, he is none of his. (Another good trinity reference? Spirit of God, Spirit of Christ.)
No one says that God put everything in the bible, but what ever is taught cannot contradict what is written in the bible. We are told to measure our teachings by the scripture:
Act 17:11
(11) These were more noble than those in Thessalonica, in that they received the word with all readiness of mind, and searched the Scriptures daily, whether those things were so.
[/quote]
Now that is a gross distortion of the scirptures . . this is exactly what Peter warned about regarding wresting the scriptures.
There is
absolutely NOTHING in that verse that says we are told to measssure teachings by the scripture.
NOTHING at all.
This verse merely contrasts the reaction of the Berean JEWS to Paul's message with the previous reaction of the Thessalonian Jews who were closed minded and ran Paul out of town.
The Bereans, in contrast, were much more open minded because of their noble upbringing, their education, their exposure to new ideas. It was because they were more "noble" that they were more open minded and willing to give Paul a far shake and see if what He said was in the OT really was there.
Remember, they were JEWS and so Paul would have shown them the OT scriptures that prophesied and foretold of Jesus.
That's all this said.
Paul said that to the Jews he became as a Jew, to the Gentiles, as a Gentile.
The Gentiles did not use the OT scritpure, so when Paul would share the good news with the gentiles, he would use what was familiar to them . not the OT scirpture which would be unfamiliar to them.
We see this is true in his speach to the pagan Athenians . . Did he, even once, refer to scripture? NO!
What did he refer to? The
ALTAR to the
UNKNOWN GOD!
Not ONE scripture was used.
Really, you should take time to see what is really in scripture rather than read into it what you want to find there.
Peace