Part Three
If those in hell eventually leave or perish, the unquenched fire did not concern them. Why did Jesus warn his followers about unquenched fire, three times, if it did not concern them?
[19] Mark 10:15 Verily I say unto you, Whosoever shall not receive the kingdom of God as a little child, he shall not enter therein.
When a person dies rejecting, cursing, blaspheming, God and does not receive the Kingdom, Jesus said they shall not enter in. For universalism to be true either Jesus is a liar, or these words must change to, shall enter in. When does that change occur?
Good example of the traditionalist forcing his doctrine on the Scriptures. There is no
leaving hell because its an experience, not a place. Jesus warns us all about the unquenchable fire because those who reject Him will face its terrible purification without mercy, albeit in Gods greatest expression of love, for He will not lose a single one the Son draws to Him in His having been lifted up (
Jn 12:32) And those portions of us which reject Him will be brought to the light of His fire and eliminated (
1Cor 3:11-15). Hence, the change occurs when all the false elements are destroyed from the individual soul, restoring the person to right relationship with her Maker.
Universalism is true, and Jesus is no liar, but you continually force your doctrine learned by literal rote on His symbolic meaning, thus removing from them--for the sake of your doctrine--their power and the highest order of their truth.
There is no second chance to receive the Kingdom, after death.
Heb 9:27 And as it is appointed unto men once to die, but after this the judgment:
What? This is completely taken out of context as part of the text barrage.
[20] Luke 9:62 And Jesus said unto him, No man, having put his hand to the plough, and looking back, is fit for the kingdom of God.
Wheres the hell you champion? Not here.
[21] Luke 12:45 But and if that servant say in his heart, My lord delayeth his coming; and shall begin to beat the menservants and maidens, and to eat and drink, and to be drunken;
46 The lord of that servant will come in a day when he looketh not for him, and at an hour when he is not aware, and will cut him in sunder, and will appoint him his portion with the unbelievers.
What is the portion of the unbelievers? αιωνιον/aiónion punishment, see Matt 13:49,50; 18:3, 8; 22:14; 25:12; 25:41-46; Mark 9:43-48; 10:15; Luke 13:23-24; 16:26; 18:17; John 3:3, 5, and notes.
See how DA forces doctrine on the Scriptures? He takes a FL passage with no connection to the eternal punishment and imposes it onto his favorite punishment verse. We've already been across that bridge.
Luke 13:23, below. Jesus said, many shall not be able, to enter the kingdom. Universalists claim that everyone will enter. Is Jesus a liar? Some time in the future will this verse change to say, Everyone shall be able to enter? When does that change occur?
Because the FL of Jesus was never intended for understanding by a literalist audience, the answer to this question is lost on him. Answer: In time, the Godly fire which sanctifies the believer effects the change in time. In the unbeliever, the same Godly firewhich serves exactly the same purpose of destroying the false elements which prevent the unbeliever from union with Godeffects this change, either at the instant of physical death (if you want to be philosophically accurate), which from the perspective of the person who finds herself in the purifying lake of Truth [fire] can be a small eternity, or after she passes and suffers same on the eternity side of things, if you aren't concerned with metaphysical propriety.
If follows that not entering the kingdom is a temporal decree. Only by properly joining metaphoric and literal meanings can one learn where to properly place the meaning [literal or symbolic] of Gods word. Once understood, the context becomes unambiguous.
[22] Luke 13: 23 Then said one unto him, Lord, are there few that be saved? And he said unto them,
24 Strive to enter in at the strait gate: for many, I say unto you, will seek to enter in, and shall not be able.
Same as above. Saved in what sense? Where does it say anything about suffering eternally in hell. I've explained the temporal/eternal distinction of salvation to you before, which satisfies the above by noting that some find their eternal salvation in this life (satisfying Jesus' response above) while the remainder face harsher purification at the end of their life or in eternity itself in the lake of God's essence, which is a roaring lake of fire to the kindling of false elements within the human soul.
[23] Luke 13:27 But he shall say, I tell you, I know you not whence ye are; depart from me, all ye workers of iniquity.
28 There shall be weeping and gnashing of teeth, when ye shall see Abraham, and Isaac, and Jacob, and all the prophets, in the kingdom of God, and you yourselves thrust out. [of the kingdom of God.]
Same as above. No mention of individuals suffering in an eternal hell here.
[24] Luke 16:22 [. . .] the rich man also died, and was buried;
23 And in hell he lift up his eyes, being in torments, and seeth Abraham afar off, and Lazarus in his bosom.
24 And he cried and said, Father Abraham, have mercy on me, and send Lazarus, that he may dip the tip of his finger in water, and cool my tongue; for I am tormented in this flame.
25 But [Jesus said] Abraham said, Son, remember that thou in thy lifetime receivedst thy good things, and likewise Lazarus evil things: but now he is comforted, and thou art tormented.
26 And beside all this, between us and you there is a great gulf fixed: so that they which would pass from hence to you cannot; neither can they pass to us4, that would come from thence.
4 Note, those in hades, the place of torment, cannot leave. 10,000 eons times, 10,000 eons times, 10,000 eons from now Gods unchanging word will still say, neither can they pass to us.
Let's use intellectual honesty here. The rich man is not told
he must remain there forever, only that there is a gulf between him and the place where no torment exists. You force eternal separation on a verse which clearly does not teach it.
Scoffers argue it is only a parable, if so, what is the point of the parable?
When someone tries to tell you, you just call them scoffers and move on to the next point.
In every legitimate parable, Jesus uses common, every day, events to illustrate or clarify, often unclear, spiritual truth.
Ya think? Sorry, couldnt resist the sarcasm, since your rote literalism is designed precisely to deny this truth by choosing which FL passages you will allow to abide by its structure. Thus the corruption of the literal, that it holds Gods word hostage and limits God to say only what literalism allows it to say.
The only common, every day, events in this story are Lazarus begging and the rich man living high. Everything else occurs after the death of Lazarus and the rich man. What spiritual truth, for the living, is Jesus clarifying, or illustrating, by talking about things that happen after death, that his audience had never experienced?
In all the legitimate parables Jesus uses nonspecific persons, a certain man, a certain king, etc. In the thousands of years of history, someone said or did the things Jesus mentioned. Somebody, somewhere, lost sheep and coins, and found them, sowed seed, etc.
But Abraham is a specific, historical, person. If Abraham did not actually, in fact, speak to the rich man, in hades, and, literally, say the words, in blue, that Jesus quotes, Jesus is a liar.
27 Then he said, I pray thee therefore, father, that thou wouldest send him to my father's house:
28 For I have five brethren; that he may testify unto them, lest they also come into this place of torment.
29 [Jesus said] Abraham saith unto him, They have Moses and the prophets; let them hear them.
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31 And he [Abraham] said unto him, [the rich man] If they hear not Moses and the prophets, neither will they be persuaded, though one rose from the dead.
These are manmade rules, not spiritual truth. Remember the control thing? Behold the beast. I could concede such a view if there existed any legitimate reason for placing it there. What basis is there for such a rule? It seems to me you're just trying to add some admittedly needed weight to your arguments by sticking in some sort of contrived linguistic rule to cement your position. Unless you can come up with a reasonable basis for this, it should be assigned to empty posturing.
[25] Luke 18:17 Verily I say unto you, Whosoever shall not receive the kingdom of God as a little child shall in no wise enter therein.
When a person dies rejecting, cursing, blaspheming, God, and does not receive the Kingdom, Jesus said they shall not enter in. For universalism to be true, either Jesus is a liar, or these words must change to, shall enter in. When does this verse change?
It doesn't need to change. You're misreading it. Jesus isn't making a demand, He's showing us the standard he intends to impose upon all whom He decreed He will draw (
Jn 12:32) The whole
"when a person dies...etc" used above is not in the Bible, it's your doctrine being wrongly presented as truth. I understand that you believe this stuff, but the downfall of the harsh literalist is his inability to see that his beliefs, though they certainly hold truth, are not
identical to truth itself.
[26] John 3:3 Jesus answered and said unto him, Verily, verily, [αμην αμην/amen amen] I say unto thee, Except a man be born again,5 he cannot see the kingdom of God.
No mention of individuals suffering in an eternal hell here or of this being an eternal set of circumstances.
[27] John 3:5 Jesus answered, Verily, verily, [αμην αμην/amen amen] I say unto thee, Except a man be born of water and of the Spirit]5, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God.
5 Note, is there any scripture, anywhere, showing anyone, ever, being born again, born of water, and the spirit, after death? When does this verse change to Even if a man is not born of water, and of the Spirit, he can still enter into the kingdom of God?
No mention of individuals suffering in an eternal hell here. Also, argument from silence, a conclusion based on the absence of statements in historical documents, rather than their presence. Carries no weight.
[28] John 15:6 If a man abide not in me, he is cast forth as a branch, and is withered; and men gather them, and cast them into the fire, and they are burned.
When does Jesus say they are taken out of the fire? How long are they burned in the fire?
No mention of individuals suffering in an eternal hell here. Answer to your question is, they're burned until all the bad stuff is annihilated.
See Matt 13:49,50; 18:3, 8; 22:14; 25:12; 25:41-46; Mark 9:43-48; 10:15; Luke 13:23-24; 16:26; 18:17; John 3:3, 5, and notes.
Note in the most well known and loved passage in the N.T. Jesus did not say everyone was saved already. But he said they are condemned already.
John 3:17 For God sent not his Son into the world to condemn the world; but that the world through him might be saved.
18 He that believeth on him is not condemned: but he that believeth not is condemned already, because he hath not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God.
Now read Jesus' FL in the same sense He intended it: Those portions of the essence of an individual which prevent him from belief are already condemned. This, unlike the literalist doctrine of eternal suffering of individuals, is part of a consistent, coherent, congruous and harmonious interpretation of Scripture which resolves the tensions imposed by literalism.