Breckmin
Junior Member
If God is truly omnipresent...then how could he separate himself from sin or not allow it in his presence?
The historical orthodox view (the correct view) is that a Holy God will
not fellowship spiritually with unrighteousness. It is an issue of fellowship
and communion... it is not an issue of three dimensional omnipresence.
The eternal separation is actually from the new heaven and the new
earth... as well as God's affectionate fellowship...it is NOT a complete
separation from an omnipresent Creator.
If hell exist, then God would be there.
Absolutely. The one thing that the sinner has to fear in hell is God.
It is God's Perfect Wrath against a guilty sinner that is righteous and
holy. The sinner is unholy and is both separated from the new heaven
and new earth as well as eternally punished. The punishment and
the separation are both distinct and it makes the reasons for eternal
hell multifaceted. This is what the annihilationalist does not understand.
Christ died to pay for our sins.
Jesus both suffered AND died to pay for our sins...but Jesus did not
annihilate...but He WAS separated from fellowship with the Father
during the time that He bore our sins.
If our sin caused us to be eternally tormented,
The reason that hell is eternal is multifaceted and the distinctions
can not be wrongfully isolated because they are all connected premises.
Whether it is the eternal nature of sin, the eternal being of God's Image,
(btw, saying hell is eternal because sin is against an infinite God is a
very poor argument), the eternal record of the temporary creation,
the fact that Perfection (Righteousness) will not fellowship with
imperfection (unrighteousness or the state of being eternally tainted),
the inability of the sinner who is imperfect to ever pay for sin (can
only eternally approach payment) OR the different levels of unequal
suffering and their limits (according to their works).....none of these
can be wrongfully isolated on (away from the others).
...then the only way Christ could pay for our sins would be to suffer eternal torment.
This is a perfect example of how annihilationalism causes people to
compare an unholy imperfect sinner who can never fully pay for their
sin to a Perfect and Holy Creator Who became a Man.
Why do Christians do this?
Jesus was completely innocent. Not one hair on His Head should have
been harmed....ever in His lifetime. The sinner is GUILTY.
Your annihilation nonsense has you comparing Holy Jesus to an unrighteous
guilty sinner and claiming they both need to pay for sin the same
way.
This is what heterodoxy causes people to do.... completely miss logic.
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