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LXX (septuagint) says parthenos (virgin) long before there were Christians.
Isaiah 7:14
14 Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a parhenos / virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel.
The point is that Christianity has maintained that Mary was a Virgin up to the point of when Jesus was born and many, such as the Catholic Church, believe she remained a virgin until death. Isaiah never uses the term virgin and the Septuagint is in Greek not in Hebrew. The Hebrew says almah (young woman), not betulah (virgin). True that a young woman can be a virgin but the text states almah and so if Isaiah meant virgin he would have said so.
The point is that Christianity has maintained that Mary was a Virgin up to the point of when Jesus was born and many, such as the Catholic Church, believe she remained a virgin until death. Isaiah never uses the term virgin and the Septuagint is in Greek not in Hebrew. The Hebrew says almah (young woman), not betulah (virgin). True that a young woman can be a virgin but the text states almah and so if Isaiah meant virgin he would have said so.
... one step further... Just as the marriage union has the partners "knowing" each other in a very intimate and personal sense, so I believe that as we are the temple of God, where God wishes to dwell is as personal and intimate as you can get.. so this covenant is that close.2) And no longer shall each one teach his neighbor and each his brother, saying, ‘Know the Lord,’ for they shall all know me, from the least of them to the greatest, declares the Lord(verse 34). To "know the Lord" makes use of the word "know" (yadah in Hebrew) in a technical sense relative to covenant making. To "know the Lord" does not mean to "know about the Lord," but to "know" Him in a covenant sense(i.e., to be loyal to Him in regard to the covenant decrees). In short, to "know the Lord" means to be obedient to Him by keeping the commandments of the covenant He has made.
So, are you going to become a Christian now?
Almah And Isaiah 7:14 Ellen Kavanaugh
"Behold, the virgin/almah shall conceive and bear a Son and His name shall be called Immanuel." Isaiah 7:14Non-believers are quick to assert that almah means "young woman" here -- to discredit the prophecy that Mashiach was "born of a virgin." However it seems obvious that in biblical times a young unmarried Jewish woman was assumed to be a virgin. The sign of Mashiach's birth was a miracle -- a virgin birth -- a child without an earthly father. Young married women giving birth would hardly be a sign -- it would be commonplace.
In Song of Solomon 1:3[SIZE=-2]1[/SIZE] and 6:8, Rashi makes almah mean "virgin." That fits. Yet in Isaiah 7:14, Rashi tries to say almah means young woman without virginity being implied. That is quite contrary to how he interpreted the same word in Song of Solomon. Further Rashi acknowledged that other scholars of his day did understand almah in Isaiah 7:14 to mean "virgin."[SIZE=-2]2[/SIZE]
Does almah mean virgin or not? Let's look elsewhere in scripture. Almah is first found in Genesis 24:43, "behold, I stand by the fountain of water; and let it come to pass, that the virgin/almah that cometh forth to draw, to whom I shall say: Give me, I pray thee, a little water from thy pitcher to drink;" . Rabbis agree Rebecca's virginity was understood here. In Exodus 2:8 "And Pharaoh's daughter said to her: 'Go.' And the maiden almah went and called the child's mother" (maiden meaning Miriam -- Moshe's sister -- still a child herself). Rabbis agree this one can mean virgin too.
Probably one of the strongest argument for almah meaning "virgin" is that when the 70 rabbis translated the Septuagint (around 2nd century BCE) they translated almah as parthenos ("virgin" in Greek). There were perfectly good Greek words for young woman, but note, the rabbis chose the word for "virgin. So if modern Judaism wants to debunk almah by saying it can't mean virgin, we see this is newer thinking (not even popularized yet in Rashi's day) and that previously almah was understood to mean "virgin" -- even in Isaiah 7:14. [SIZE=-2]1avid Stern's Jewish New Testament Commentary copyright 1992 (4th edition 1995) p 7. [/SIZE]
[SIZE=-2]2: Arnold G Fruchtenbaum's Jesus Was A Jew copyright 1981 (3rd printing 1995) p 52. [/SIZE]
Almah And Isaiah 7:14 (Messianic Judaism)
No. I would never give up my Jewish heritage to follow Jesus Christ, ever.
I think that this thread makes very clear as to why I will never become a Christian, let alone anything else, because I am bound to Torah law until the day I die.
And at any rate I could never give up Jewish girlsfor Christian girls, sorry, just not possible.
Sorry, did the child to which your are refering to...did His kingdom and throne end? if so...then the child could not have any shape or form accomplish the promise.The fact is that the "young woman" in question is King Ahaz's wife so she is already married and secondly, to play the part of "devils advocate", the verse says "the young woman" and not "a young woman" and so even if it was not speaking of Ahaz's wife it is nonetheless speaking of someone known to him. In this context it is speaking of a sign to the King himself and not someone born 700 years after the fact. If Isaiah meant a young woman who is a virgin then he would have clearly said so but, alas, he does not and simply states young woman and hence the word almah and not betulah. Yes, I realize that in order to conceive under Torah law, one has to be married otherwise the death penalty could be carried out but the verse in Isaiah clearly is refering to a woman who is married. But if you all want to make it into a prophecy about the "Virgin Mary" then go ahead but just remember what rewriting the text has done to humanity's understanding of G-d over the many years. Those who rewrite the text to mean something else will suffer for it as G-d warned.
This thread has been derailed because it is no longer looking at the intent of the OP - the letter to the Hebrews. The questions are now quite diverse and should be put in their own threads so that others may answer them instead of hiding them in this thread..
The Gospel of John does converse with The Letter to the Hebrews to a degree and so I was simply connecting the two. I also stated before in the thread that this discussion would go in many different directions. The questions I have asked and that have been asked of me relate in many ways to the OP statement.
It is obviously a well known fact that the differences between Judaism and Christianity are great and numerous and because of this there will never be a theological compromise on the part of either religion. Not that any religion should ever compromise on the basis of "understanding" if that action should cause the religion to go against itself and so in this context, it must be said, the fundamental difference between the Tanakh and the Gospel is on the point of view that one has about the divinity of Jesus Christ because after all this is a core tenet of Christian belief and because the divinity of a man, a person, goes against Jewish Monotheism at every level of understanding and hence truth revealed in the biblical text. No one can deny the exitence of the nature of the universe and so no one can deny the innate nature of humanity and in this I mean to say that in order to truly understand the "Laws of G-d" we must first and foremost comes to terms with the reality of the situation of life so that we can all see the world for what it really is and has always been. This can be best summerized in this accord:
"Hear, O Israel: HASHEM is our G-d, HASHEM is the One and only. You shall love HASHEM, your G-d, with all your heart, with all your soul, and with all your resources. And these matters that I command you today shall be upon your heart. You shall teach them thoroughly to your children and you shall speak of them while you sit in your home, while you walk on the way, when you retire and when you arise. Bind them as a sign upon your arm and let them be ornaments between your eyes. And write them on the doorposts of your house and upon your gates." - Deuteronomy 6:4-9
"For this commandment that I command you today - it is not hidden from you and it is not distant. It is not in heaven, [for you] to say, "Who can ascend to the heaven for us and take it for us, so that we can listen to it and perform it?" Nor is it across the sea, [for you] to say, "Who can cross to the other side of the sea for us and take it for us, so that we can listen to it and perform it?" Rather, the matter is very near to you - in your mouth and in your heart - to perform it (the law)." - deuteronomy 30: 11-14
In other words if we begin to follow the ways of G-d, to truly seek Him and His commandments, we will find that the answers are right in the law, we just have to look and once we are aware then we must perform the laws. This is the core value of the Torah: "To walk in His ways" so that we "perform His laws and ordinances".
This is the decree of life and as a Jew I have no alternative but to obey and as for the world entire:
"I will make My holy Name known among My people Israel, and I will not desecrate My holy Name any longer; then the nations will know that I am HASHEM, the Holy One in Israel. Behold, it is coming and it will happen - the word of the L-rd HASHEM/Elohim - that is the day of which I have spoken." - Ezekiel 39:7-8
The Letter to the Hebrews (sometimes called The Book of Hebrews) is attributed to the Apostle Paul, although some doubt that he wrote it,
but it nonetheless is striking to me, a Jew, because it was written to converts from Judaism to Christianity, Messianic Jews if you will,
and so my question is that many Christians will state that the "New Testament" is only a fulfillment of the "Old Testament" and yet the Gospels clearly state that the entire "old law" is made void by Jesus Christ:
"But he (Jesus) is worthy of more "glory" than Moses, as the founder of a house has more "honor" than the house itself." - Hebrews 3:3
"For if that first covenant had been faultless, no place would have been sought for a second one. But he finds fault with them and says:
~snip~
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