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This could be trickier than it seems, but I'll give it a shot. Take for example the case of Joseph's brothers deciding to throw him in a pit rather than kill him. If people truly have free will then up until the point that they threw him in the pit, the option to kill him should've been available to them, and only when that decision was ultimately made would the potential for all other options cease to exist. (MWI being a different scenario altogether)A collapsing wavefunction has a probabilistic outcome - can you explain exactly what you mean by 'free will' in this context?
In other words Adam and Eve's attainment of the knowledge of good and evil may have been a one time event, but learning to apply it is an ongoing process.There's been a gradual trend over millenia of increasing degree of civilization, though with a lot of 2 steps upward then 2 or 3 downward. And of course a given nation/society can begin to degenerate. But despite the many failing societies, overall there's been an upward trend. That's what the OT is about, if you read through. The effort to establish and strengthen the Rule Of Law. Read it through and you'll see that very clearly.
The effort. The struggle of God to bring us around.
I'm aware that violence in general has been decreasing for hundreds of years, but the claim I was responding to was that a god belief helps prevent wrongdoing, and I would like to see some evidence that this makes a significant difference, because, AIUI, secular societies experience no more (and possibly less) wrongdoing than religious ones (with the caveat previously mentioned).There's been a gradual trend over millenia of increasing degree of civilization, though with a lot of 2 steps upward then 2 or 3 downward. And of course a given nation/society can begin to degenerate. But despite the many failing societies, overall there's been an upward trend. That's what the OT is about, if you read through. The effort to establish and strengthen the Rule Of Law. Read it through and you'll see that very clearly.
The effort. The struggle of God to bring us around.
But even here in the U.S. we get moments when the Rule of Law seems at real risk, in danger.... Trump was a strong test of it.
God's solution is to change our hearts, -- as we read that's what Christ came to do -- and then save all who change and walk in the right, as Christ taught in detail, into eternal life.
A compatibilist (determinist) might argue that, lacking detailed knowledge & understanding of their internal state, any actor will perceive a range of possible options for action, and experience freely making a choice from those options. Nevertheless, the evaluations that constitute that choice, from mood to preferences, are deterministic - the result of a sequence of prior events. So, what looks like a choice from 'behind the veil of ignorance' is better understood as a deterministic calculation with many parameters, most of which are unknown to the individual.This could be trickier than it seems, but I'll give it a shot. Take for example the case of Joseph's brothers deciding to throw him in a pit rather than kill him. If people truly have free will then up until the point that they threw him in the pit, the option to kill him should've been available to them, and only when that decision was ultimately made would the potential for all other options cease to exist. (MWI being a different scenario altogether)
Hence if we have the capacity to choose one course of action over another then the present should unfold like a collapsing wavefunction, wherein the potential for all available outcomes must exist prior to any choice being made, and apparently cease to exist afterwards.
Now I'm not really sure that that adequately defines free will or whether it even exists, but in this case the assumption is that a free will agent has the capacity to choose between different potential actions.
If that explanation is inadequate, please feel free to clarify any objections.
I was of course arguing from the assumption that people really do have free will, in which case the present emerges in seemingly the exact same way as a collapsing wavefunction, with actuality emerging from potentiality.A compatibilist (determinist) might argue that, lacking detailed knowledge & understanding of their internal state, any actor will perceive a range of possible options for action, and experience freely making a choice from those options. Nevertheless, the evaluations that constitute that choice, from mood to preferences, are deterministic - the result of a sequence of prior events. So, what looks like a choice from 'behind the veil of ignorance' is better understood as a deterministic calculation with many parameters, most of which are unknown to the individual.
But again, what do you mean by 'really having free will'? IOW, if it doesn't mean ranking and selecting from the perceived options according to one's causally determined preferences, desires, mood, and so on (as in the compatibilist account), on what grounds is a 'really free will' choice made?I was of course arguing from the assumption that people really do have free will, in which case the present emerges in seemingly the exact same way as a collapsing wavefunction, with actuality emerging from potentiality.
"We must believe in free will - we have no choice" Isaac Bashevis SingerIn any case, whether reality is deterministic, or probabilistic, or stochastic, or random it presents a problem for anyone who's worldview includes the assumption that people have free will. The entire biblical narrative becomes inexplicable if people really do have free will. But then again many Christian narratives become inexplicable if people don't have free will.
Either way, the Christian narrative has a problem. Unless of course one holds the position that, "Men freely will what God wills them to will". I'm not exactly sure how that's supposed to work, but it's a position that many Christians take.
Edit: Actually I can imagine a scenario in which that statement makes at least some modicum of sense.
But again, what do you mean by 'really having free will'? IOW, if it doesn't mean ranking and selecting from the perceived options according to one's causally determined preferences, desires, mood, and so on (as in the compatibilist account), on what grounds is a 'really free will' choice made?
That was my point - if how one feels is causally determined by prior events, then free will is only a label for our ignorance of those causes.Free will emerges when how one feels serves to influence what one does.
A sense of free will can emerge from an intense focus on the present.That was my point - if how one feels is causally determined by prior events, then free will is only a label for our ignorance of those causes.
I would argue that free will choices aren't simply random choices and therefore they'll inevitably be determined at least in part by prior events. But I would also argue that consciousness, of which "how I feel" is an integral component, is an emergent property qualitatively different from the constituent parts from which it emerges. Specifically, I would argue that the emergence of consciousness breaks the one to one correlation between the underlying cause of consciousness and its subsequent choices, and that it does this by giving rise to attributes specific to consciousness such as feelings, desires, emotions etc. It's these emergent properties, who's subsequent behavior can't be predicted from the underlying causes, that makes free will possible.That was my point - if how one feels is causally determined by prior events, then free will is only a label for our ignorance of those causes.
No one can demonstrate objectively that free will is 'a thing', which exists independently from a human mind.I would argue that free will choices aren't random choices and therefore will inevitably be determined at least in part by prior events. But I would also argue that consciousness of which "how I feel" is an integral component is an emergent property qualitatively different than the constituent parts from which it emerges. Specifically, I would argue that it breaks the one to one correlation between the underlying causes and the subsequent choices, and that it does this by using attributes specific to consciousness such as feelings, desires, emotions etc. in the decision making process.
I would argue therefore that free will occurs when consciousness uses attributes specific only to itself in order to arrive at a choice that the underlying causes couldn't arrive at on their own. Yes, consciousness has an underlying cause, both for its own existence and for its content, but it supplements this with attributes peculiar only to itself, and that's what gives it free will.
Thanks, I always appreciate it when someone makes me really have to stop and think about something. To be honest I'm highly skeptical of free will, so forcing me to have to defend it gives me a unique perspective that I may not have considered otherwise.
Because a necessary attribute of consciousness, or a mind if you wish, is coherency. Where does it come from?No one can demonstrate objectively that free will is 'a thing', which exists independently from a human mind.
Neither is consciousness, or causes (for that matter).
Yet I notice how you appear to hold these mind concepts separately from your above commentary.
Why?
Is it?Because a necessary attribute of consciousness, or a mind if you wish, is coherency. Where does it come from?
Is it?Because a necessary attribute of consciousness, or a mind if you wish, is coherency. Where does it come from?
I'm pretty sure if we went back in history, we could find examples of people put into 'mental asylums' for displays of incoherency(?)
Are you excluding those conscious minds (and the reasoning behind 'putting them away')? Why?
I don't deny the consistencies of our minds' perceptions.Yes.
You have the ability to ask that question because you know what those words mean. You know what coherency means, and what consciousness means. You know what a tree is, and what a cloud is. You know that what goes up must come down, and every effect must have a cause, because the world is ordered and coherent. If it wasn't then there would be no words and there would be no clouds, and all there would be would be an orderless and senseless chaos.
But the world is ordered and coherent... so where did that order come from?
Most people would say that it came from a big bang that happened some 13.8 bya. Still others might claim that God created it. But wherever it came from, it's there, and you can only ask that question precisely because it is there.
So I'll ask again, where did it come from?
So there's no known way to completely exclude your own mind's perceptions of 'order and consistency' from the perception of the same in your observations, (including the obvious coherency implicit in your imposed concept of 'cause and effect').I'm not excluding anything. If someone is incoherent and delusional, then there's a reason why they're incoherent and delusional. For every effect there's a cause, and the same holds true for the delusional. Which would seem to suggest that the mind isn't the cause of coherency, rather it's an effect of coherency, and a somewhat imperfect one at that.
You don't appear to 'get' the very concept you started this post out from. Let me remind you of what you said: 'You know what coherency means ...'.But the original point still holds, absent coherency the mind wouldn't exist. You wouldn't have been able to posit your question and I wouldn't have been able to answer it. So where did that coherency come from?
Sure - but having a 'sense of free will' says nothing about detailed causality in any case, it's just a feeling. That we might regret our choices in retrospect just highlights how little we know of the reasons for them (their causes).A sense of free will can emerge from an intense focus on the present.
Deliberate abandonment of the concerns of the past, leaves little room for the notion of causality (irrespective of ignorance .. the evidence is that free will choices frequently turn out as having been risky propositions, as in: 'what was I thinking?').
I agree, in as much as we are conscious of feelings.I would argue that free will choices aren't simply random choices and therefore they'll inevitably be determined at least in part by prior events. But I would also argue that consciousness, of which "how I feel" is an integral component, is an emergent property qualitatively different from the constituent parts from which it emerges.
I disagree with this. The evidence suggests that feelings, desires, emotions, etc., are all of unconscious origin. IOW, we become consciously aware of them as unconscious activity brings them to prominence. As Schopenhauer said, "A man can do what he wants, but not want what he wants."Specifically, I would argue that the emergence of consciousness breaks the one to one correlation between the underlying cause of consciousness and its subsequent choices, and that it does this by giving rise to attributes specific to consciousness such as feelings, desires, emotions etc. It's these emergent properties, who's subsequent behavior can't be predicted from the underlying causes, that makes free will possible.
I disagree with this. The evidence suggests that feelings, desires, emotions, etc., are all of unconscious origin. IOW, we become consciously aware of them as unconscious activity brings them to prominence. As Schopenhauer said, "A man can do what he wants, but not want what he wants."
Being creatures of habit, people are generally fairly predictable, but we (and they) can only guess at why they do what they do. Cunning experiments have shown that people make up plausible explanations for actions they're consciously aware of doing but don't really know why.