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Lilith2006

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The reason it refers to Eves seed in Genesis 3:15 is because God is only talking to Eve & the snake. God is not talking to Adam here. Seed always refers to descendants. I ask again, who are Satan's descendants?
 
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Butch5

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The reason it refers to Eves seed in Genesis 3:15 is because God is only talking to Eve & the snake. God is not talking to Adam here. Seed always refers to descendants. I ask again, who are Satan's descendants?
Did you read the post? I explained who Satan's seed are. The word seed is singular. However, it can refer to a single seed or it can refer to multiple seeds. I have a bag of seed. The word offspring is the same. The word is singular, but it can refer to one or more. The word group is singular, but it includes multiple people. Paul explains how the Jews misunderstood the promises made to Abraham and his seed. The Jews thought they were the seed. However, Paul tells us in the Galatians 3:16 that when God made the promise it was to Abraham and his seed, not his seeds. That Seed was Christ.

16 Now to Abraham and his seed were the promises made. He saith not, And to seeds, as of many; but as of one, And to thy seed, which is Christ

The Holy Bible: King James Version, Electronic Edition of the 1900 Authorized Version. (Bellingham, WA: Logos Research Systems, Inc., 2009), Ga 3:15–16.
 
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2PhiloVoid

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That's fine by me if you want to interpret it that way. Besides, if Christianity is true, it doesn't really depend on Gen. 3:15 being a prophecy pertaining to the Messiah.
 
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clusium

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The reason it refers to Eves seed in Genesis 3:15 is because God is only talking to Eve & the snake. God is not talking to Adam here. Seed always refers to descendants. I ask again, who are Satan's descendants?
The reason it refers to Eves seed in Genesis 3:15 is because God is only talking to Eve & the snake. God is not talking to Adam here. Seed always refers to descendants. I ask again, who are Satan's descendants?
The Pharisees in Our Lord Jesus' Time. Gospel according to St. John, chapter 8, verse 44. Basically all who exchange truth for a lie.
 
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Lilith2006

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Why would a person reading Genesis need the new testament or Paul to explain it to them? This was written over 1000 years before the new testament or Paul came onto the scene, so those reading it would need to understand it without the new testament. How do we know Paul isn't just making stuff up? We don't know if Paul is inspired by God by Satan, or if he is just a raving lunatic. What did Jesus himself say about the verse?
 
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Lilith2006

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The Pharisees in Our Lord Jesus' Time. Gospel according to St. John, chapter 8, verse 44. Basically all who exchange truth for a lie.
The Pharisees are descendants of Eve. They are not descendants of any serpent. They believed in strict adherence to the law of Moses. I am not surprised that early Christians would clash with the Pharisees, & want to discredit them because Christians wanted to do away with the mosaic laws. Pharisees are of human descent, just like every other human. Satan is a spirit. He can not give birth to humans.
 
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Lilith2006

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The reason it refers to Eves seed in Genesis 3:15 is because God is only talking to Eve & the snake. God is not talking to Adam here. Seed always refers to descendants. I ask again, who are Satan's descendants?
Why would the Jews be expected to believe that Jesus was the son of God? There was no prophecy of a son of God, & jesus had not, & still hasn't, fulfilled the prophecy of the messiah. There was no reason for Jews to believe he was the son of God then & still no reason to believe it now. The major prophecies of the Messiah remain unfulfilled.
 
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nope i have not added anything ... the book of Revelation of Jesus Christ states clearly the ancient serpent is called Satan who is our adversary, deciever, accuser,tempter etc which the OT speaks to as well should one do a word study of the hebrew it is written in ...

Male and female created he them; and blessed them, and called their name Adam, in the day when they were created.

Adam named his wife Eve after the fall and the commandment "thou shall not eat of it" was given but one time before the woman came out of the man.

you do realize Genesis is a metaphorical language or do you believe knowledge grows on a literal tree ...

edit: not only are you adding to the verse by inserting Eve but you are also adding to what you percieve my perception of Satan is by your own perception, seeing up untill now i have only refered to what Satan is pictured as in the book ... and no i do not believe Satan to be a literal snake or a literal red dragon ... however within these pictures are clues ( for a better word ) like the word Adam which means red which is seen in Essau who as the first born came out red ...
 
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Lilith2006

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Maybe the gospels are also metaphorical. So when jesus was crucified it was actually a metaphor for the future decline of the Roman empire, & when he rose again, it was a metaphor for the rise of islam. A Muslim can easily spin it that way.
And no, I don't think that the creation in Genesis is literal. It's a creation myth, but you want to spin the story about being about Christianity, when it would be just as easy to spin stories in it to be about Islam, which Islamic scholars already do.
 
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i edited my post 148

Christ on his cross raised up between two thieves is one and the same picture as Samson chained between two pillars as it is the same as reasoning between two fruits of a tree ...

and for the record i do not hold to any theology or doctrine which has come out of christiandom... i see the narative of the book as our souls journey of a there and back happening between our ears which relates to the present moment we find ourselves in ...
 
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2PhiloVoid

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You're right. It would be difficult for anyone to interpret Jesus as being the Messiah from a simple, straightforward, literal reading of the Old Testament. It would be especially difficult if that same reading came without any additional divine evidence or further prophetic hermeneutic to apply to it.

Moreover, we all know there are verses and portions of the Old Testament that might as well be read and treated as a Gestalt. For instance, we can take a portion of Isaiah, say Chapter 48 on the whole, and read it thoroughly. ... after doing so, I have to admit that I come away from a "straightforward" reading of that entire chapter with the question: "What does all that even mean???"

It's not easy to tell, is it?
 
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Butch5

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The simple answer is because God hid it in the Old Testament. The prophets didn't understand a lot of what they wrote.

If you want to know if Paul is legit just look at what he said and compare it to the Old Testament. He constantly quoted from the Old Testament.

I am a little confused, you asked for an answer to the question and then when I gave you one you simply dismissed it without engaging it.
 
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Lilith2006

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How did we get from a story about a snake deceiving eve to it being about Satan & Mary? There is no logical connection there. The story is that Eve & the snake that deceived Eve will have enmity towards one another, or hate one another for the rest of their days. Both Eve & that snake are dead now. The curse was also extended to the future generations of Eve & the future generations of the snake. If the prophecy is that Jesus would crush Satan, then why are Christians claiming that Satan is still deceiving us? It's a failed prophecy if your contention is true, so Jesus is not the messiah.
 
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clusium

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Simply put, Satan used Eve to entice Adam into disobeying Our Father, and thereby bring sin into the world. So Our Father Told the serpent that He Could & Would Play that Game too. Just as the devil used a woman to bring about sin into the world, Our Father Would Use a later Woman to Bring Our Salvation (the Christ) into the world.

Our Lord Jesus' Death on the Cross Crushed the head of Satan. He Paid the Price for our sins. But, Satan never gives up in trying to lead us away from Our Father.
 
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Lilith2006

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If what you are implying is correct, then sin was already in the world with Satan. So Adam & Eve aren't to blame for sin entering the world. God allowed Satan into the garden, bringing sin with it. The best you can say is that Adam & Eve were used as playthings by God & Satan in a sick game between them, just as Job was used by God & Satan to play a game inJob. So why do Christians insist that man bought about his own downfall? God knew exactly what would happen if he allowed Satan into the garden. As I dont believe the serpent is Satan, this is the question christians have to answer. Can YOU answer it, because no Christian to date has attempted to answer the question?
 
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Lilith2006

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If you read Isaih 48:17, it makes it clear that the "redeemer" is YWH. There is no mention of God having a son who will later come to redeem Israel. The redeemer is already there, to redeem Israel from Babylon.

I don't see any difficulty with this chapter UNLESS you are reading it from the point of view of a Christian, & you need to make Christ the redeemer?
 
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clusium

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Yes, I suppose it can be argued that sin began before the Creation of humanity, with the rebellion of Satan & the fallen angels. However, it is not God that Used them, but rather Satan. God Did not Bring Satan into the Garden of Eden, he snuck in himself, in order to deceive the first woman & through her, the first man. Yes, God & Satan Made a Bet with One another, in regards to Job. God Lets Satan test all of us. Actually, there is a story regarding Pope Leo XIII that is somewhat similar to the story of Job.

Vision Of Pope Leo XIII
 
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2PhiloVoid

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My apologies, but I wasn't referring to Jesus in any way, shape or form when I cited Isaiah 48. I guess I wasn't clear on that point so you may have thought I was attempting to slide in some allusion to Jesus. No, I didn't have Jesus directly in mind here.

Rather, my citation of it was merely to suggest that the entirety of it is difficult to understand. But since, as you mentioned in an earlier post, interpretation is open to all of us, there are some folks who aver that they indeed "know" what many of the passages of the bible mean. Some of them will even tell me that know exactly what verses 1 through 12 mean in chapter 48.

If we want to suggest that a passage like Isaiah 48 is clear and distinct enough in its meaning to inform us, then I'd think we might perceive epistemic fault lines in the claim that biblical writings can always be read in a straightforward, simple manner and are always without hidden purposes or cryptic meanings since verses 1 through 12 don't leave us with that plenary position any longer. God might be hiding things about how, when, why, and where He will do what He will do or communicate what He communicates, and this even when dealing with His own people (whether they be Jewish or Christian).

Because if this is the case, then this also provides an impetus to think there is validity in the the fields of Hermeneutics and Biblical Exegesis, whether of the Jewish form or the Christian form, and we should be able to recognize these academic areas as necessary to our individual attempts to interpret the Bible. None of us is really completely free to just interpret the Bible [or any literary work or other media] as we see fit, unless we want to make fools of ourselves.

In the case of the Bible, and being that we all know that we ourselves have not written it, I'd feel guilty for imposing my own meaning(s) in a Post-Modernistic [Derridean] way upon the texts, especially if there is even a shred of possibility I might come to understand any of the original author's intended meanings, even if it turns out that strictly Jewish interpretations of the Old Testament are the most true and those made by Christians are the most questionable.
 
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Lilith2006

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If God is omniscient, he would have known ahead of time that Satan would try to gain access to the garden to trick Adam & Eve. If God is all powerful, he could easily have prevented Satan from entering the garden. Either God is neither omniscient or all powerful, or he WANTED Adam & Eve to fail. There are no other explanations.

Well, there is one other explanation, & that is that Satan is not in the story at all.
 
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TahitiRun

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The seed of Satan are those who oppose God.

Interesting topic and ideas being expressed here.

Another way to understand the two seed concept of Gen 3:15 is that the seeds pertain to the "flesh" (the carnal, natural and earthly nature of the body that's derived from the earth, metaphorically representing Satan) and "spirit" or the very breath of God (of the woman, being spiritual in nature and representing Christ. Christ being the last or final Adam) from Gen 2:7 and 1Co 15:45.
 
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