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genesis 17:13

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eh7

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13 Whether born in your household or bought with your money, they must be circumcised. My covenant in your flesh is to be an everlasting covenant. (genesis 17:13)

Since Genesis 17:13 stated that circumcision is an everlasting covenant, why has circumcism stopped? Also what is the purpose of circumcism in this case?
 

Rut

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eh7 said:
13 Whether born in your household or bought with your money, they must be circumcised. My covenant in your flesh is to be an everlasting covenant. (genesis 17:13)

Since Genesis 17:13 stated that circumcision is an everlasting covenant, why has circumcism stopped? Also what is the purpose of circumcism in this case?

I think it have stoped because of Act 15:1 - 29
 
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stabalizer

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eh7 said:
13 Whether born in your household or bought with your money, they must be circumcised. My covenant in your flesh is to be an everlasting covenant. (genesis 17:13)

Since Genesis 17:13 stated that circumcision is an everlasting covenant, why has circumcism stopped? Also what is the purpose of circumcism in this case?

By definition, covenant means , "to cut". It also is a contract between two parties. The shedding of blood signifies the signature or sealing of the contract and by inferrence the penalty for breaking covenant.

That covenant was by letter of the law, the new covenant is a covenant by adoption to those outside of Abrahamic decent, (biological only)

That doesn't mean the goodness of the law went away. Only the penalty of breaking it.

That's why we are in a dispensation of grace.

I hope this helps!
 
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JimfromOhio

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In Colossians 2:11-12 explains that we are circumcised in Jesus Christ, not with a circumcision done by the hands of men but with the circumcision done by Christ Himself, having been buried with Him in baptism and raised with Him through our faith in the power of God, who raised Him from the dead. Galatians Chapters 5 & 6 explains more how we are circumsized by Christ spiritually.

For it is we who are the circumcision, we who worship by the Spirit of God, who glory in Christ Jesus, and who put no confidence in the flesh. (Philippians 3:2)
 
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winslow

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eh7 said:
I was actually trying to ask, since God had made an everlasting convenant, how could He break it? The bible says God does not lie.

God never broke his covenants with man, it was man that broke the covenant with God.

The dispensation of grace began when Adam sinned, it has just been more fully revealed in NT. The OT is the NT consealed, the NT is the OT revealed.
 
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eh7

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stabalizer said:
By definition, covenant means , "to cut". It also is a contract between two parties. The shedding of blood signifies the signature or sealing of the contract and by inferrence the penalty for breaking covenant.

That covenant was by letter of the law, the new covenant is a covenant by adoption to those outside of Abrahamic decent, (biological only)

That doesn't mean the goodness of the law went away. Only the penalty of breaking it.

That's why we are in a dispensation of grace.

I hope this helps!

The Jews are of Abrahamic decent right? If so, that means they still need to obey this law of circumcision? And the gentiles who are outside of the Abrahamic decent do not. Am I right to say that?
 
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eh7

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JimfromOhio said:
In Colossians 2:11-12 explains that we are circumcised in Jesus Christ, not with a circumcision done by the hands of men but with the circumcision done by Christ Himself, having been buried with Him in baptism and raised with Him through our faith in the power of God, who raised Him from the dead. Galatians Chapters 5 & 6 explains more how we are circumsized by Christ spiritually.

Does this apply to the Israelites?
 
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david_x

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The Jews are of Abrahamic decent right? If so, that means they still need to obey this law of circumcision? And the gentiles who are outside of the Abrahamic decent do not. Am I right to say that?

No, all can be saved, "Jew and Gentile" "Circumcised and Uncircumcised"
 
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Wavy

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That's what Yahweh said, and that's what he meant. It cannot be negated by the new covenant or "spiritualized" away, because the text clearly says "in your flesh". Also, the principle of a circumcision not made by hands is not something Paul introduced (many people's antinomian hero).

It is found in Deut 10:16 and Deut 30:6. (within the torah itself).

The NT argues against being enslaved to certain communities of Jews through the torah (and their own dogma) at the expense of the gospel of Messiah (deliverance for the exiles of Israel, and to be a light to the nations, and the restoration of the kingdom of Israel).

The problem was an interpretation of torah concerning when one was considered justified and saved. Some taught it was first through circumcision (with unbiblical Jewish ranking methods of spirituality and steps of righteousness, or "works of law" to become a Jewish prosylete).

Paul actually refuted this perversion of torah with torah itself (Romans 3:31). We out in the nations are justified after the manner of Abraham, that is, in uncircumcision. If we tried to work first for this justification, the bible says we "have whereof to glory but not before Yahweh". Faith was the primary principle. Abraham had faith first and then was accounted righteous and did his works afterwards (James reveals to us that faith without works is dead and that the scripture that declared Abraham's righteousness by faith had to be fulfilled by his faithfully obedient works).

Abraham was justified in akrobustia (mistranslated "uncircumcision" in the NT, according to my knowledge) before actual circumcision. Circumcision was a sign of his faith. We take these very same steps (Romans 4:12), walking in the faith of Abraham, the father of we who believe.

So the New Testament does not negate it. If we belong to Messiah we are Abraham's seed (Israel) and as Genesis 17:13 applies to us (in the right method, not as certain Jews presented it). This is something not to be pressed upon a believer because a Jew says he must do it to be saved.

I also heard some one say the new covenant is one of "adoption" for those who are not Israel (if I understood correctly, sorry if I did not). I don't want to knock anyone here, but that is not technically in scripture. The new covenant was made with both houses of Israel (Jeremiah 31:31) and as such anyone who is part of it is considered Israel too. The Abrahamic covenant and the new covenant are two different things...

:thumbsup:
 
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