Freewill?

quatona

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I suggest you take take the matter up with Emmanuel Kant since it was his idea not mine:
No, it wasn´t. His imperative is quoted in your post:
"…act only according to that maxim by which you can at the same time will that it be a universal law."
This is miles away from your interpretation.
It´s about maximes, not about actions.
 
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Radrook

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No, it wasn´t. His imperative is quoted in your post:
"…act only according to that maxim by which you can at the same time will that it be a universal law."
This is miles away from your interpretation.
It´s about maximes, not about actions.

Your understanding of what Kant meant goes totally against its definition and is nonsensical.
I suggest we simply agree to disagree.
 
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quatona

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Your understanding of what Kant meant goes totally against its definition and is nonsensical.
My understanding that it´s about maximes and not about actions is right there in the quote.
Also, I have shown how the interpretation "If everyone did what I do..." leads to nonsensical results.
I suggest we simply agree to disagree.
No, I suggest we have a duel. You choose the weapons. :D
 
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Radrook

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My understanding that it´s about maximes and not about actions is right there in the quote.
Also, I have shown how the interpretation "If everyone did what I do..." leads to nonsensical results.

No, I suggest we have a duel. You choose the weapons. :D

I don't duel against totally nonsensical propositions.
To be honest, I don't enjoy dueling at all.
I prefer to let the person choose to believe whatever the person wants to believe.
After all, that is a basic human right.
 
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quatona

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I don't duel against totally nonsensical propositions.
To be honest, I don't enjoy dueling at all.
I prefer to let the person choose to believe whatever the person wants to believe.
After all, that is a basic human right.
I like your dry humour.
 
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FrumiousBandersnatch

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However, many people view our lives as "tests" by a deity to make the "right" choices. But, if said deity already knows the choices we will make long before we make them, that requires predetermination. Otherwise, there is a chance of said deity being wrong, and you can't actually claim that they know the choices that will be made.
Ways around this have been proposed, typically by changing the deity's relationship to time, e.g. the deity is said to be 'outside' time, seeing at once every event that happens, so knows what you will choose, because it sees you making the choice; and variations on that theme - but these raise more problems than they solve, e.g. needing some kind of 'meta-time' and the problem of normal temporal interactions with our world as described in the bible, an so-on.. pretty unsatisfactory stuff.
 
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PsychoSarah

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Predetermination implies forced actions.
Not really in the sense that we would normally interpret force. The interesting thing is, if predetermination is in play, it has to apply to deities as well. For events to be predetermined means they are 100% going to happen. But, if there isn't a 100% chance an event is going to happen, it is impossible for any being to truthfully be able to know with absolute certainty what the future holds, because the future itself is not absolutely certain. If, say, there was honestly a 50% chance of the side of a coin landing heads or tails, stating which will happen is but a guess on ANYONE'S part because for both possibilities to be in play, there has to be a chance the person predicting the outcome is wrong. But, from the perspectives of beings like us, we can't actually tell the difference between a predetermined and non-predetermined universe in the sense that we don't know which we live in. Heck, it could even be a mix of both things.

There is no force applied to a human who willfully chooses to do what he has decided to do just as their is no force involved in my knowing that a boxer will lose a fight because he has agreed to throw the fight.
Of course there is no force; predetermination doesn't need to force anyone to do anything. People are just always going to make the same choice given the same situation. That is, no matter how many times you reset the event of me picking between eggs or cereal for breakfast yesterday, I will always pick cereal. I don't even know if a deity aware of the predetermined future could defy it (which would be an existential hell that rivals my fear of oblivion after death; to know what shall happen in the future, and yet be unable to change it). But, if a deity did that, the future would no longer be predetermined, and they could no longer be absolutely certain of the future, because they wouldn't be able to predict their own actions with absolute precision.

My knowledge does not in any way deprive him of his ability to have chosen hat outcome.
Well, if you were his doctor and stated his insurance wouldn't cover another severe head injury, it might. We limit the choices of other people all the time if free will exists, and if it doesn't, that just means we were predetermined to perform actions that give the illusion of additional limit.

Now, if I had said that I would kill his whole family if he won, then I am attempting to predetermine what he will do via coercion. Perhaps there is equivocation involved in our ability to agree.
Well, that, or he would knock you out with one good punch. But, if predetermination is in play, you were always going to make that threat, and always going to influence his illusion of choice the same way. But what matters is, can god know what will happen with absolute certainty, or not? If it can, then not only do we not have free will, but god can't have it either. The thing is, though, lots of the powers attributed to the Christian god are not scriptural. The bible never says this being is omnipotent, omniscient, or omnibenevolent, just that it is powerful, knowledgeable, and good.

Here is the definition I am going by:
Yeah, but if the very nature of our universe and everything in it is predetermined, nothing is actually deciding these absolute outcomes... unless you think the whole "deity outside universe and god has a plan thing", which still means the deity is the only being with free will, which is enough to ruin both the free will argument for human actions, and prevent the deity from being able to know the future with absolute certainty.
 
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FrumiousBandersnatch

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Predetermination implies forced actions.
Yes and no; it depends on the viewpoint you take; determinism requires that the particular outcome of some particular situation is inevitable, but that doesn't mean the actor making some decision to act knows this, or feels forced into it; because, under a deterministic regime, all the considerations of his choice are determined by antecedent events, including his thoughts and his feeling that he is choosing freely according to his preferences (which he is - they're the result of antecedent events too).

It seems to me that a common thread in failing to understand the deterministic view is not including people's mental operations in the deterministic circumstances of their choices. In the deterministic view, an individual approaches a choice in a mental state that is as determined as everything else - his mood, preferences, opinions, emotions, thoughts - conscious and subconscious, etc., all the inevitable (but unpredictable) result of previous events. So the selection from the available options for a choice, whether by conscious deliberation and weighing of considerations, or by impulsive emotion, is a deterministic product of complex but deterministic activity in the brain.

Another difficulty with understanding the deterministic view is one of scale and the limitations of human perception. At the scale of everyday human activity, the deterministic nature of the world isn't obvious because it's at a scale we can't perceive directly - the movement of atoms and molecules and the forces acting on and between them. At our perceptual scale, we see the broadly predictable results of billions of these small scale interactions, but also a great deal of uncertainty and unpredictability, due to the macro effects of unperceived micro activity and deterministic but chaotic activity that is inherently unpredictable, even at macro scales.

We naturally take the world to be as it appears in everyday life - what we don't see doesn't seem relevant; it doesn't bother us that the apparently solid materials we build our infrastructure out of, the materials we walk on, travel in, use to lock up our valuables, and are constructed of ourselves, are mostly empty space; that the solidity we feel is the repulsion of electromagnetic fields around atoms and molecules that are themselves mostly empty space. We acknowledge those discoveries, accept them, shrug, and get on with life. But when it's suggested that the underlying determinism that governs everything else in the world is equally true of the processes underlying our thoughts and actions, many people can't acknowledge it, accept it, shrug and move on - because it doesn't feel that way, and there's an extensive personal and social investment in believing it isn't that way; reasons that are also broadly true of the counterintuitive nature of matter - which, in contrast, is accepted without any qualms...

p.s. the deterministic view may (or may not) be weakened by the observed stochastic nature of quantum mechanics, which is uncertain in more ways than one; however, for everyday purposes at larger scales, the summed results of QM processes are deterministic for most practical purposes (otherwise the world would be far stranger than it is!).
 
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Radrook

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Not really in the sense that we would normally interpret force. The interesting thing is, if predetermination is in play, it has to apply to deities as well. For events to be predetermined means they are 100% going to happen. But, if there isn't a 100% chance an event is going to happen, it is impossible for any being to truthfully be able to know with absolute certainty what the future holds, because the future itself is not absolutely certain. If, say, there was honestly a 50% chance of the side of a coin landing heads or tails, stating which will happen is but a guess on ANYONE'S part because for both possibilities to be in play, there has to be a chance the person predicting the outcome is wrong. But, from the perspectives of beings like us, we can't actually tell the difference between a predetermined and non-predetermined universe in the sense that we don't know which we live in. Heck, it could even be a mix of both things.


Of course there is no force; predetermination doesn't need to force anyone to do anything. People are just always going to make the same choice given the same situation. That is, no matter how many times you reset the event of me picking between eggs or cereal for breakfast yesterday, I will always pick cereal. I don't even know if a deity aware of the predetermined future could defy it (which would be an existential hell that rivals my fear of oblivion after death; to know what shall happen in the future, and yet be unable to change it). But, if a deity did that, the future would no longer be predetermined, and they could no longer be absolutely certain of the future, because they wouldn't be able to predict their own actions with absolute precision.


Well, if you were his doctor and stated his insurance wouldn't cover another severe head injury, it might. We limit the choices of other people all the time if free will exists, and if it doesn't, that just means we were predetermined to perform actions that give the illusion of additional limit.


Well, that, or he would knock you out with one good punch. But, if predetermination is in play, you were always going to make that threat, and always going to influence his illusion of choice the same way. But what matters is, can god know what will happen with absolute certainty, or not? If it can, then not only do we not have free will, but god can't have it either. The thing is, though, lots of the powers attributed to the Christian god are not scriptural. The bible never says this being is omnipotent, omniscient, or omnibenevolent, just that it is powerful, knowledgeable, and good.


Yeah, but if the very nature of our universe and everything in it is predetermined, nothing is actually deciding these absolute outcomes... unless you think the whole "deity outside universe and god has a plan thing", which still means the deity is the only being with free will, which is enough to ruin both the free will argument for human actions, and prevent the deity from being able to know the future with absolute certainty.

I was going to write the following response:

So under such a hypothetical scenario, mankind is being forced into behaviors because the behaviors were predetermined? That idea generates very serious moral issues involving the creator's personality. Please note that if indeed an almighty entity is involved in the set-up of how things work in his universe and if all events are predetermined by this almighty entity to occur in the exact manner and the exact time in which they occur, then this entity must carry the moral culpability involved in each and every event that transpires.

That means that every single time Vlad the Impaler impaled or otherwise tortured someone, every single time that a Jewish person was gassed at a Nazi concentration camp, every single time that a child is raped or otherwise abused, and every single time that Jack the ripper ripped, it was this entity that planned it in that exact, meticulous way.

The problem with such an idea is that it defames the personality of God by making him seem as some type of scheming fiend who takes sadistic pleasure in every unjust event that transpires in his universe. This depiction goes completely contrary to how the Bible describes the creator's personality. It also conveys the idea that we should do as he says and not as he does. In short, it implies that God is an evil hypocrite who has absolutely no moral right to demand of his creatures strictly avoid what he himself practices with glee.

For that reason alone the concept of predetermination as per that definition appears to be untenable with Christian theology.

However, when I read your statement that you are describing an entity that is not necessarily omnipotent, all-knowing, and not necessarily benevolent, I realized that we are talking about two distinct beings and there really is no common ground for discussion. This entity you describe isn't the one that I had assumed you were referring to when I wrote the above. As you yourself admit, your view isn't the orthodox view but one that goes contrary to it.
 
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PsychoSarah

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However, when I read your statement that you are describing an entity that is not necessarily omnipotent, all-knowing, and not necessarily benevolent, I realized that we are talking about two distinct beings and there really is no common ground for discussion. This entity you describe isn't the one that I had assumed you were referring to when I wrote the above. As you yourself admit, your view isn't the orthodox view but one that goes contrary to it.
I don't know you well enough to know how you view the deity you worship. It also varies so much from person to person, I have to keep the details pretty open for the sake of anyone else that might want to respond to me. I speak of no specific deity; at most, I commented that the bible never actually says YHWH is omnipotent, omniscient, or omnibenevolent. Not with those literal words, or equivalent phrases. The closest the bible gets is to any of those qualities is omniscient, to the point that I view inferring that from the text as acceptable (though not set in stone). The farthest of those qualities is omnibenevolent, given that specific qualities that contradict an omnibenevolent being are applied to YHWH at various points in the bible, and the actions of the deity within the text do not reflect that kind of nature. YHWH kills the child of David and Bathsheba to punish David for killing a man and taking his wife (the aforementioned woman). No omnibenevolent being would punish a baby for the father's crime. And it is pretty explicit in the text that the baby died because YHWH willed it.

If you believe in and worship a being that is omnibenevolent, know that you aren't worshipping the deity depicted in the bible.
 
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Radrook

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I don't know you well enough to know how you view the deity you worship. It also varies so much from person to person, I have to keep the details pretty open for the sake of anyone else that might want to respond to me. I speak of no specific deity; at most, I commented that the bible never actually says YHWH is omnipotent, omniscient, or omnibenevolent. Not with those literal words, or equivalent phrases. The closest the bible gets is to any of those qualities is omniscient, to the point that I view inferring that from the text as acceptable (though not set in stone). The farthest of those qualities is omnibenevolent, given that specific qualities that contradict an omnibenevolent being are applied to YHWH at various points in the bible, and the actions of the deity within the text do not reflect that kind of nature. YHWH kills the child of David and Bathsheba to punish David for killing a man and taking his wife (the aforementioned woman). No omnibenevolent being would punish a baby for the father's crime. And it is pretty explicit in the text that the baby died because YHWH willed it.

If you believe in and worship a being that is omnibenevolent, know that you aren't worshipping the deity depicted in the bible.

The baby wasn't being punished-David and Bathsheba were.
Righteousness demands retribution for crimes. If a crime is condoned then the entity cannot claim righteousness.
However, it is the manner of punishment that you take umbrage with.

From a human standpoint it might seem unjust. But from the standpoint of someone who can easily restore the dead, back to life via a resurrection, who perceives time duration differently, who considers life on this wicked Earth as undesirable and who views a temporary sleep in death to suddenly awaken in a paradise earth or to grow up in a paradise a far better experience, it could very well appear as if he were bestowing a blessing since the child was spared all the bitterness that living out a life as a slowly-dying human inevitably entails.

Then there is the permission of evil which some view as casting doubt on his benevolence. Yet, such a permission is viewed by some as be righteous loving effort to establish a legal precedent for the immediate termination of any future rebellion based on a challenge to his right to rule. As a temporary period of time in which mankind shown to be totally incapable of governing itself and to be in dire need his guidance so that the establishment of his rule over the earth can never again be challenged as being unjust as was done in Eden.

Omnipotence? Not all Christians view the creator as capable of knowing every detail of the future. Some suggest that there was nothing in Adam and Eve which indicated that they were going to rebel so there was nothing upon which to predict the disobedience. Others say that he simply did not look at their future but permitted things to develop.

The same holds true for almightiness. There are certain things that simply don't yield to the application of power because they are inherently impossible. The squaring of a circle is one. Being TOTALLY unconscious and TOTALLY conscious at the same time or totally existing and not existing at the same time.. The Bible also states that it is impossible for God to lie.

Power was not what was challenged in Eden anyway. It was the right to rule and God's motives that were questioned.
So an immediate reaction with overwhelming power would have been irrelevant.

Isa 55:
For my thoughts are not your thoughts, neither are your ways my ways, said the LORD.
 
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PsychoSarah

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The baby wasn't being punished-David and Bathsheba were.
And Pharaoh was the one punished when all the firstborns of Egypt were killed. I type that while rolling my eyes in an exaggerated manner. The act was still violent. Furthermore, do you deny the words of the deity itself?
Exodus 32:10-11
""Now then let Me alone, that My anger may burn against them and that I may destroy them; and I will make of you a great nation." Then Moses entreated the LORD his God, and said, "O LORD, why does Your anger burn against Your people whom You have brought out from the land of Egypt with great power and with a mighty hand?"

Exodus 34: 14
"For thou shalt worship no other god: for the LORD, whose name is Jealous, is a jealous God"

Righteousness demands retribution for crimes.
How is killing someone actually a crime if it just sends them to a good afterlife that's better than the life they were already leading? How can killing someone be wrong, when in order for it to happen, it must be a part of a deity's ultimately good plan?

This is why I facepalm every time a theist tries to say atheists can't claim murder is wrong and such and such because no authority tells us it is wrong. The reality: members of a social species that rely upon each other to survive shouldn't need to be told that murder is not a good thing to begin with! All social species react negatively to an individual going about killing others without provocation, because that behavior endangers the entire group's long term survival. Not just for the fear of being murdered, but for the fear that so many shall be killed, that even if the killing stops, the few that remain will not be enough to survive and shall begin to die off as well. Furthermore, as I don't believe in any afterlife, from my perspective, all murders are the destruction of the only existence those people had, which is extremely dire. They will never experience anything ever again, their family and friends will never be able to have reciprocating interaction with them again. Murder ends a person. That alone is enough for me to view it as abhorrent.

If a crime is condoned then the entity cannot claim righteousness.
A being with the power to stop crimes, yet doesn't, is condoning them indirectly. In fact, you think the murders and rapes of the world are not only allowed to happen, but are a necessary part of this deity's plan.

However, it is the manner of punishment that you take umbrage with.
The fact that you don't take issue with the baby being killed, when David could have easily been punished in another way that didn't result in any death yet would have still be satisfactory as retribution for his crime, bothers me. It isn't just how he is punished, but the fact that the being doing the punishing isn't significantly limited in the manner in which it punishes. Heck, YHWH could have made the man he killed haunt him with crippling guilt for the rest of his life, leaving him not one moment without regret for his actions, and the emotional toll would have been far worse than the loss of a young infant (which was such a common occurrence at the time that the bible doesn't even put a value on infant slaves until the age of 1 year).

From a human standpoint it might seem unjust. But from the standpoint of someone who can easily restore the dead, back to life via a resurrection, who perceives time duration differently, who considers life on this wicked Earth as undesirable and who views a temporary sleep in death to suddenly awaken in a paradise earth or to grow up in a paradise a far better experience, it could very well appear as if he were bestowing a blessing since the child was spared all the bitterness that living out a life as a slowly-dying human inevitably entails.
Yeah... to be considered omnibenevolent, a being capable of preventing suffering HAS to actively prevent it. Free will is not considered inherently good or bad to have, so violating it doesn't count against that alignment. Furthermore, much of the suffering in the world is from natural disasters and other events humans have no control over; these would never be a part of the design of an omnibenevolent being. Ever.

Then there is the permission of evil which some view as casting doubt on his benevolence. Yet, such a permission is viewed by some as be righteous loving effort to establish a legal precedent for the immediate termination of any future rebellion based on a challenge to his right to rule.
That's... super arrogant and pathetic. How is it benevolent to allow evil to exist for the sake of people worshipping you (the "you" referring to the deity in question).

As a temporary period of time in which mankind shown to be totally incapable of governing itself and to be in dire need his guidance so that the establishment of his rule over the earth can never again be challenged as being unjust as was done in Eden.
Yeah, an omnibenevolent being wouldn't punish people for questioning it. If questioning it would have dire consequences, it wouldn't make people with the capacity to do it. Free will is not some inherent good. Also, it could make people that wouldn't ever sin without limiting free will: they can do whatever they want, but they will never think to do something harmful.

Omnipotence? Not all Christians view the creator as capable of knowing every detail of the future.
Omnipotence is the capacity to do literally anything; omniscience is knowing everything. And I know not all Christians view YHWH as omniscient... but if it isn't, then how is trusting it to judge people that much better than trusting a person, since both have gaps in their knowledge, and any knowledge gaps compromise the ability to judge fairly and correctly.

Some suggest that there was nothing in Adam and Eve which indicated that they were going to rebel so there was nothing upon which to predict the disobedience. Others say that he simply did not look at their future but permitted things to develop.
Putting the temptation in the garden in the first place was like placing a large knife within reach of an ignorant child. It's negligent, and there is no benefit to doing it. Why even make that tree in the first place, or put it within reach?

The same holds true for almightiness. There are certain things that simply don't yield to the application of power because they are inherently impossible. The squaring of a circle is one. Being TOTALLY unconscious and TOTALLY conscious at the same time or totally existing and not existing at the same time.. The Bible also states that it is impossible for God to lie.
It does, and YHWH gets around it by lying by proxy. Seeing as it is actually rare for YHWH to speak to someone directly in the bible, that makes the lack of lying thing moot in many cases. Furthermore, if the deity doesn't know literally everything, it is still possible for it to communicate something that is wrong as long as the deity isn't aware that it is wrong.

Power was not what was challenged in Eden anyway. It was the right to rule and God's motives that were questioned.
So an immediate reaction with overwhelming power would have been irrelevant.
But, what exactly is inherently wrong with questioning the rule of the deity to begin with? The being tried to solve the problem of sin by destroying nearly everything in a flood, and the plan didn't even work. I'd question its judgement. The thing is, though, I don't think the being actually exists, so the only thing that actually bothers me about its actions in the bible is that most of the people that do believe in it don't notice or don't care about the morally questionable actions.
 
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Radrook

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And Pharaoh was the one punished when all the firstborns of Egypt were killed. I type that while rolling my eyes in an exaggerated manner. The act was still violent. Furthermore, do you deny the words of the deity itself?
Exodus 32:10-11
""Now then let Me alone, that My anger may burn against them and that I may destroy them; and I will make of you a great nation." Then Moses entreated the LORD his God, and said, "O LORD, why does Your anger burn against Your people whom You have brought out from the land of Egypt with great power and with a mighty hand?"

Exodus 34: 14
"For thou shalt worship no other god: for the LORD, whose name is Jealous, is a jealous God"



Why God chose to kill the firstborn?
How is killing someone actually a crime if it just sends them to a good afterlife that's better than the life they were already leading? How can killing someone be wrong, when in order for it to happen, it must be a part of a deity's ultimately good plan?

This is why I face-palm every time a theist tries to say atheists can't claim murder is wrong and such and such because no authority tells us it is wrong. The reality: members of a social species that rely upon each other to survive shouldn't need to be told that murder is not a good thing to begin with! All social species react negatively to an individual going about killing others without provocation, because that behavior endangers the entire group's long term survival. Not just for the fear of being murdered, but for the fear that so many shall be killed, that even if the killing stops, the few that remain will not be enough to survive and shall begin to die off as well. Furthermore, as I don't believe in any afterlife, from my perspective, all murders are the destruction of the only existence those people had, which is extremely dire. They will never experience anything ever again, their family and friends will never be able to have reciprocating interaction with them again. Murder ends a person. That alone is enough for me to view it as abhorrent.


A being with the power to stop crimes, yet doesn't, is condoning them indirectly. In fact, you think the murders and rapes of the world are not only allowed to happen, but are a necessary part of this deity's plan.


The fact that you don't take issue with the baby being killed, when David could have easily been punished in another way that didn't result in any death yet would have still be satisfactory as retribution for his crime, bothers me. It isn't just how he is punished, but the fact that the being doing the punishing isn't significantly limited in the manner in which it punishes. Heck, YHWH could have made the man he killed haunt him with crippling guilt for the rest of his life, leaving him not one moment without regret for his actions, and the emotional toll would have been far worse than the loss of a young infant (which was such a common occurrence at the time that the bible doesn't even put a value on infant slaves until the age of 1 year).


Yeah... to be considered omnibenevolent, a being capable of preventing suffering HAS to actively prevent it. Free will is not considered inherently good or bad to have, so violating it doesn't count against that alignment. Furthermore, much of the suffering in the world is from natural disasters and other events humans have no control over; these would never be a part of the design of an omnibenevolent being. Ever.


That's... super arrogant and pathetic. How is it benevolent to allow evil to exist for the sake of people worshipping you (the "you" referring to the deity in question).

Yeah, an omnibenevolent being wouldn't punish people for questioning it. If questioning it would have dire consequences, it wouldn't make people with the capacity to do it. Free will is not some inherent good. Also, it could make people that wouldn't ever sin without limiting free will: they can do whatever they want, but they will never think to do something harmful.


Omnipotence is the capacity to do literally anything; omniscience is knowing everything. And I know not all Christians view YHWH as omniscient... but if it isn't, then how is trusting it to judge people that much better than trusting a person, since both have gaps in their knowledge, and any knowledge gaps compromise the ability to judge fairly and correctly.


Putting the temptation in the garden in the first place was like placing a large knife within reach of an ignorant child. It's negligent, and there is no benefit to doing it. Why even make that tree in the first place, or put it within reach?


It does, and YHWH gets around it by lying by proxy. Seeing as it is actually rare for YHWH to speak to someone directly in the bible, that makes the lack of lying thing moot in many cases. Furthermore, if the deity doesn't know literally everything, it is still possible for it to communicate something that is wrong as long as the deity isn't aware that it is wrong.


But, what exactly is inherently wrong with questioning the rule of the deity to begin with? The being tried to solve the problem of sin by destroying nearly everything in a flood, and the plan didn't even work. I'd question its judgement. The thing is, though, I don't think the being actually exists, so the only thing that actually bothers me about its actions in the bible is that most of the people that do believe in it don't notice or don't care about the morally questionable actions.

I started to respond to each objection but then stopped because I realized no explanation that I attempt to provide will prove satisfactory and would only lead to further objections and probably only serve to upset you even more. Thanks for the feedback nevertheless.
 
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FrumiousBandersnatch

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Warning - another long post (last one, I promise!)
...As long as an experience is attended to, the intentionality necessary for knowledge is present.
Have you never discovered or realised that you've learnt something without attending to it at the time?
... the crucial stand you are taking is in denying humans the traditional, colloquial understanding of knowledge...
I'm not saying anything about what humans have or don't have, or what they can do or can't do. I'm simply suggesting a simple set of basic definitions that are suitably contextual, and reasonably close to the dictionary versions, that we can match with any system, human or otherwise, to determine whether it has that basic property. If a system has more than the basic features, we can expand the definition and add a qualifier (e.g. 'self-knowledge').
... it will become important not to bias definitions of knowledge, understanding, truth, and belief in favor of computational realities.
The definitions should be able to be compared to any system, organic or inorganic.
We must take them at face value, as human realities, and see if they also apply to computers.
Sure; if you disagree with or want to add to the definitions I suggested, explain why and suggest a revised definition.
...now I assume you see that I was not making a merely tautological or analytic statement?
I see that you didn't intend to.
If you did not previously know that Socrates is a human being, and a sound syllogism led you to that conclusion, then you would have new information. (It is simply untrue that everyone who knows Socrates knows that he is a human being or that everyone who knows what a human being is knows that Socrates was one)
Precisely my point - that's the only information it gives you. Of itself, it tells you nothing about human beings (let alone their 'essence'), other than that Socrates is one. You may be able to tell something about humans from what you already know about Socrates, and vice-versa, but that's all.
In a certain sense, no.
So if "Applying rules without understanding them in order to come to a "conclusion" is not understanding" for a computer, and you admit to applying rules without understanding them, then - by your own logic - you are not understanding either. This kind of confusion is why I think a clear definition of understanding is necessary.
We create computers, we do not create human beings.
Yet the human population continues to grow...
... the human capacity for self-knowledge is perhaps one sign that he is fundamentally different from a computer.
In general, yes; but computers can have self-knowledge, and have been made self-aware in a limited sense (also see Self-aware Mario); it's not human level self-awareness, but it's important not to confuse what has been achieved to date with what is potentially achievable.
Computational acts can be exhaustively defined, human knowing cannot.
The computational acts of more than trivially simple artificial neural networks cannot be more exhaustively defined than human knowing - not least because they're architecturally similar substrates. This can be a problem for understanding why ANNs do what they do.
There is an asymmetry in our definitional capabilities with respect to the two entities. This is why your requests for definitions do not strike me as altogether helpful (although provisional definitions can sometimes be useful).
A definition is a concise description or explanation of the meaning of a term. A concept is an abstract idea, so concept definitions must also be abstract, independent of any particular entities. If you feel we can't do this for concepts such as knowledge and understanding, then I guess we must change the subject, because without a definition of a concept, effective communication about it isn't possible.
Consider a parrot. I say "blue," he says, "blue." I say, "red," he says, "red." Does this mean that the parrot knows what blue and red are?
Alex the parrot knew and understood that, and a whole lot more ;)
The programmer designs optical hardware that parrots the human eye, calibrates the optical hardware to quantify the frequencies of light visible to the human eye, divides that quantified/interpreted input according to the average human color ranges for "blue," "red," etc., and tells the computer to record and store the cartesian coordinate pixel information alongside the assigned color (etc.).
My point wasn't about the colour of the blocks, but the knowledge and understanding of their spatial relationships, as I thought I'd made clear.
According to your own definition of understanding, because no generalization, conceptualization, or abstraction took place.
On the contrary, deriving the rules that apply from a number of example situations, and then correctly applying them to novel situations, involves abstraction (abstracting the rules from the examples), conceptualization (the rules express the concepts), and generalization (applying the rules to novel situations). This is a clear example of understanding.
Are humans capable of knowledge that is not merely focused on practical manipulation? Knowledge for the sake of knowledge?
Certainly (assuming that by 'capable of knowledge' you mean 'capable of acquiring knowledge'). Knowledge for the sake of knowledge is fine; a goal need not involve practical manipulation, nor a defined end point.
Let me just say that in this, as in the "tabula rasa" language below, I don't believe you.
It isn't the language that's tabula rasa, it's the language acquisition (learning) system. You don't need to believe me, I've given you links to the media article, the published paper, some relevant results, and the full software and documentation; you can verify it for yourself.
What does this even mean? It strikes me as very vague, like hand-waving.
It's a (very simplified) description of the kind of artificial neural network used in the ANNABELL system.
The behavior of the AI derives from the programming and the input, and nothing else. You desire to tell me that the behavior of the AI somehow transcends the code, but clearly that is not the case.
Yes and no; that conflates programmed behaviours and learnt behaviours (functioning at a higher level of abstraction), which is a crucial distinction. I don't think you'll find many AIs with hard-coded behaviours these days. Most are based on artificial neural networks and trained to behave in the desired way. So the ANNABELL system was programmed to be a network system that could learn; it had no program code or data relating to language. It was trained to learn a language by linguistic interaction alone - which, incidentally, suggests that Chomsky's idea of an innate grammar is not required for language acquisition.
If the AI produces unexpected behavior and fulfills an (arbitrary) goal set by a human being other than the programmer, then the fact that it is unexpected merely derives from the ignorance of the programmer. If he was a better programmer he would have seen the output ahead of time and it wouldn't have been unexpected.
That assumes the programmer knows what his algorithms will be used for; for example, evolutionary algorithms often produce unexpected but highly effective results, without the programmer having any way to predict what they might be.
AI sits well below complex animal life and is believed by some to rival human knowledge and understanding, and all the while/millenia philosophers have pointed out the qualitative differences between humans and animals, thus a fortiori accounting for the differences between humans and AI. Does that strike you as strange?
No, should it? AI at present is domain-specific, and those domains are narrow. Within those domains AI can rival or exceed rival human knowledge and understanding, but I don't think anyone's claiming more than that.
If you agree that AI is less complex than complex life, then wouldn't it be easier to argue that apes and humans are on the same level?
I don't think that's a coherent question - AI is, by definition, less complex than life that is more complex than AI; how complex that is depends on the AI and the domain in question. And humans are apes - specifically, Great Apes (Hominidae).
...in your account you ascribed the construction of the representational models to the human being. Thus even in your account agency creeps in.
The human being learns from experience and constructs representational models using a biological neural network. An artificial neural network can learn from experience and construct representational models in a broadly similar way (though with orders of magnitude less processing complexity & sophistication). Agency (acting to some effect, i.e. interacting with the environment) is obviously necessary; if, by 'agency', you mean something different, explain what you mean and why you think it is necessary.
Computers, understood properly, are purely passive in the sense that they are not self-moving (such as my billiard illustration above explains).
That was plain assertion. Computers respond to their inputs, and humans to theirs (perceptions and sensations).
In order to equalize humans and computers, you must claim that humans too are purely passive, determined, and totally moved by antecedent conditions.
Who said anything about 'equalizing' humans and computers? Humans are orders of magnitude more complex than any current computer system.

Humans are not passive, they actively interact with their environment, but yes, I think those interactions are determined by antecedent conditions (there may be a smidgen of randomness, but insignificant). When you make a decision or a choice, or take an action, do you base it on anything? do you have a reason for it?
This is an undeniable way in which your view represents a demoting of the human being rather than a promoting of the computer, for the idea that a human is self-moving, is an agent, is common belief
I don't see it as a demotion at all; humans are the result of over 2.5 billion years of evolution, the most awesomely complex and sophisticated system yet discovered. It's just a shame it's still so unreliable and prone to magical thinking...
If Frumious is right, then humans are not truly agents. True or false?
Depends what you mean by 'truly agents'. Care to give a coherent definition or explanation?
...you seem to be denying speculative knowledge, human agency, and qualitatively different "exemplar goals" from the initial evolution-driven goal.
I'm not denying 'speculative knowledge', or human agency (if you mean acting to some effect), and I have no problem with goals that appear entirely divorced from the evolutionary goal of reproduction - it's a feature of complex systems that you can get emergent, indirect, or unexpected behaviours.
Recall that you're arguing against my idea that knowledge has intrinsic meaning whereas bits stored in a computer do not.
Ah, no; You can see from my definitions that I agree that raw data (e.g. bits stored in a computer) have no meaning, information is data given meaning, and that knowledge is stored information. So I argue knowledge has meaning by definition.
We are comparing the human interpreter to the computational interpreter, where the input to the human is the entire physical world and the input to the computer is that limited data it receives.
Um, no again. Input to the human is restricted to the limited data it receives through its senses - a wider variety than most computers, but in many cases considerably less in quantity (consider the LHC computer and 'big data' processors).
Now the bits stored in a computer that represent its "knowledge" do not have any intrinsic meaning apart from the meaning the human bestows on them and transfers, through programming, to the computer.
True for hard-coded computer systems, not so much for artificial neural network learning systems. For both humans and ANN learning systems, the patterns of data input (for humans, data from the senses, passing up the afferent nerves to the brain) have no intrinsic meaning apart from that imposed by the processing areas (first stage sensory processing areas in humans), that have been trained (not programmed), by experience (interaction with the environment), to interpret them in useful ways.
Your claim is that the basic interpreter bestowed on the computer by the human being is not qualitatively different from the basic interpreter bestowed on the human being by evolution. If evolution exhaustively explains the human being, then I believe you would be correct.
OK.
Note too that in this case no intrinsic meaning exists anywhere, only artificial and imposed meaning.
Data only has meaning to some system that can interpret it (as information).
The question we must ask ourselves is whether humans can do things that qualitatively transcend computers, animals, and that trajectory of acts which evolution renders possible. Whether humans are capable of qualitatively different acts than evolution is able to account for--much more than a roomba in a rectangular room. So far I have offered a few candidates:
Agency. Humans can act, and decide whether or not to act. (Free will, ATDO, etc.)
Humans are capable of speculative knowledge, knowledge for the sake of knowledge, truth apart from manipulation.
Neither agency (acting and deciding to act or not), nor speculative knowledge, or knowledge for the sake of knowledge, necessarily transcend evolutionary or AI systems possibility; and determinism doesn't mean you can't decide to act or not, it simply means that what you do (or don't) decide is determined. I don't know what you mean by 'truth apart from manipulation' - truth is correspondence with reality, and (apart from analytic truths) necessarily uncertain.

Free will and ATDO are more complicated; if you like, I can address them in a separate post, to stop this one becoming even longer...
...For the human "All bodies are extended" has meaning even apart from practical applications. We know what each term means and that the statement is true.
It is true by definition. We know this if we have been told it or learnt about it (e.g. from early modern philosophy or substance dualism), and understand it if we know about objects, and the world. But I don't see why one couldn't, in principle, train an ANN system to understand it in simple terms (e.g. to explain what it means); I also don't see why one would.
We can ponder it, come to see it more clearly, examine it, etc. This is not so for the computer.
Like humans, computers can only do such things if they have the cognitive capability and training. But if you could build an ANN system with the structure and complexity of a human brain, and train it as thoroughly, I would expect it to be able to do so - although there's really no good reason to do so...
...it's as true now as it was then. The ancient philosophers made similar arguments 2500 years ago and they have only sharpened with time.
If you read the sample interactions (link), you'll see the ANNABELL system behaving as one interpreter and the teacher as another, in conversation about things and events in the world (the 3rd pole), comparing favourably to a 5 year-old and mother on the same subjects.
They can approximate it, but they don't understand it. Maybe a circle is a better illustration.

What is a circle? A perfect circle? It is an infinite number of infinitesimal points equidistant from a center point. Do we really know what that is? It doesn't exist in the physical world; it is impossible to see one; we can only approximate a perfect circle in material realities.
Geometrical shapes are abstractions that can be formulated mathematically. Computers can handle that kind of abstraction with ease - it's applying it to material approximations they've had difficulty with, though this has been much improved recently.
To say that we truly understand something that can only be approximated by material realities tells us a few things. It tells us that computers can't 'understand' perfect circles, and it tells us that we transcend the material realm. Presumably you would disagree that we can really understand a perfect circle?
We can understand geometrical shapes in various ways - as can computers. You'll have to explain what you mean by 'truly understand' and 'really understand'; I've suggested a basic definition - do you accept it, or would you like to supply one of your own?
The real difference between us on this point is in whether the human starting point is an approximation or a kind of identity--whether we approximate truth or really know truth. We agree that the computer can only approximate truth. If the human really knows truth then the computer will only ever have an approximation of the knowledge and truth that we have (as I said before).
I don't agree that a computer can only approximate truth because I don't know what you mean by that (example?). Truths about the world (non-analytic truths) are necessarily uncertain, so in that sense, neither computer nor human can 'really know truth'.
You are using knowledge in the sense of an approximation, such that a computer has knowledge of circles insofar as it can approximate one. Real knowledge of a circle entails knowledge of a perfect circle, an understanding that necessarily transcends the material world.
Nope - I have already given my definition of knowledge, which doesn't involve approximation. A perfect circle is a mathematical abstraction; computers can handle them easily.
We could teach a monkey or a computer to draw a circle. They would come to associate our command with their action of drawing. Even if we said "Circle!" a billion times and they drew a billion circles, they would not come to understand the definition of a circle, despite their practical ability to produce one.
Monkeys are not computers. Computer systems can be made that can infer or idealise 'pure' geometric forms from multiple approximations.
Your whole case rests on the claim, "It drew a circle, therefore it understands what a circle is."
I haven't made such a claim, nor do I think it is true. I've given my definition of understanding; if you disagree with it, explain why; if you have a better one, provide it.
 
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PsychoSarah

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I started to respond to each objection but then stopped because I realized no explanation that I attempt to provide will prove satisfactory and would only lead to further objections and probably only serve to upset you even more. Thanks for the feedback nevertheless.
I am not upset in the slightest. But I have to question your reluctance to address my points. Furthermore, when I am shown to be wrong, I accept it gracefully, and have done so on multiple occasions while on here, from corrections by both theists and atheists.
 
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Job8

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Hello everyone. I would like to discuss freewill, and whether such a thing is possible Scientifically, Logically, and according to Scripture. I will start with Logic.

I have a choice between A or B. God knows that I will choose A. By my freewill I choose B. Please explain. Thank you all and God bless you.
Quite simple really. If you will ultimately choose B then God knows you will choose B. Forget about A.
 
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zippy2006

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It is the last warning (I've recalibrated 'long' for posts) ;)

I see. :)

Basically, I don't have sufficient time for a dialogue of this magnitude, assuming it is nowhere near ending. At the same time, I don't want to simply leave off. The goal of my next post would be to considerably whittle down the post size while emphasizing the main principles upon which we differ. Yet I know that you prefer a conversational rather than syllogistic approach, and so your input is welcome. Any suggestions?

Or perhaps you've received some enlightenment in the previous weeks and fully agree with me!? ;)
 
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