Rob, I do not want things to be like this between us. I enjoy speaking with you and I apologize if my tone came across as harsh ever in this conversation. That is not my ultimate intention, but as always, sometimes things get heated in debate forums
Let me just explain my understanding, it's ok if you don't agree with it.
In Romans 8:30 we read:
Rom 8:30 And those whom he predestined he also called, and those whom he called he also justified, and those whom he justified he also glorified.
First I asked you what kind of "calling" this was. As far as I know theologians have recognized two kinds of calling in scripture, regarding salvation.
1) Outward call - this is the universal gospel message that we preach to every creature
2) Inward call - this is the call that God does inwardly to us, when he calls us to salvation.
According to Paul, all the called are justified (Justified meaning saved - we are declared as just before God's court) Since all the called are justified, Paul cannot be referring to the general call of the gospel, or else this verse would be saying that every person who hears the gospel is justified and glorified.
So obviously Paul is speaking of a special kind of call that God does. If all the called are justified and glorified, that means all the called are saved. So this type of call is effectual and has a 100% success rate. And this call cannot be to every person or every person would be saved (universalism)
Now, the second question I asked you was "Does being called happen because of justification, or does justification happen because of being called?"
According to Paul, the order is this: "whom He predestined, He called, and whom He called, He justified...". So being called is based on being predestined, not vice versa. We are not justified (saved) and then called on that basis, but rather, we are called on the basis of being predestined.
The third question I asked was this: "Does predestination happen because we answer this calling, or do we answer this calling because we are predestined?"
Yet again according to Paul the order is this: "whom He predestined, He called, and whom He called, He justified, and whom He justified, He glorified"
Since all the called are justified and glorified, that means all the called obviously respond positively to the gospel and are saved/justified. So they respond to the gospel (justified and glorified) because they are predestined which leads to them being called.
They do not become predestined on the basis of responding to the call, but rather, they respond to the call on the basis of being predestined.
Calvinists believe the latter, Arminians believe the former. Someone is wrong and someone is right. The debate here is "Did God elect because we believe? Or do we believe because He elected?"
That's the debate between the two systems. The Bible is clear which answer is the correct answer in several places, but especially in this passage. Therefore, there is no reason or need to write this off as a mystery under the guise of "Well, God exists outside of time therefore we don't need to worry about it". There is no need to appeal to mystery and philosphy and assert that in some mysterious way, election and responding to the call are somehow simultaneous. They are not simultaneous,
logically speaking, which is clear from this verse.
The whole point is,
in logical order, one leads to the other. One is the result of the other. One is the basis for the other. One of them has causal priority. One is the cause and the other is the result.
They cannot both be all of these things.
And to me, it seems clear that the reason I responded positively to the gospel and was justified is
because I was "foreknown, and called...", and according to Paul, all the called are justified and ultimately glorified.
Therefore, Arminians are wrong in saying that the reason we are predestined is because we are justified (because we answered the call). Such an notion is to put the entire thing backwards and make Paul's argument twist around backwards.
Thanks for hearing me out.