It's a common scientific process. From here:
Karl Popper: Falsification Theory
'Karl Popper’s theory of falsification contends that scientific inquiry should aim not to verify hypotheses but to rigorously test and identify conditions under which they are false.
For a theory to be valid according to falsification, it must produce hypotheses that have the potential to be proven incorrect by observable evidence or experimental results.
Unlike verification, falsification focuses on categorically disproving theoretical predictions rather than confirming them.'
Does that mean you decided that freewill could not be proven false, and therefore resorted to using a red herring to see what you got out of it?
Why did you not use the scientific process on it?
I challenge you to do so.
You can't prove determinism because you'd need to investigate every single event. So the OP is based on 'IF determinism is true...' But you can disprove it by showing one single event that was not caused.
Okay. Disprove freewill.
That's up to you. If you are absolutely sure that determinism is false then you must have at least one example?
No. I think it's only fair that you prove freewill is false, since you came on here cocked sure it is false, and you believe in using the scientific processes.
Correct. It's not like that at all.
How is it different?
All effects have causes. Now give me an example of one that doesn't.
How is that relevant to your argument.
All effects having causes do not render your brain useless... nor mine.
Another example? You haven't given a single one.
Sure I have. You may not know this... or do you,, but from my experience, when an atheist tells a person, they did not give him what he asks for, he usually means, the person did not give him what he
will accept.
That is nothing anyone can fix.
I have given examples where decisions are made with no antecedent causes.
Furthermore, I asked you to prove that they were not, and what was your response....
You cannot prove it.
Okay, then prove that freewill cannot exist along with determining factors.
You cannot prove that either.
So, what we are looking at here is a case of irrational arguments, followed by unreasonable responses and demands from the one that cannot see that he is not thinking things through reasonably.
Give it some thought.
Imagine someone asks you to show them a spatula.
You take a spatula to them, and they tell you, "That's not a "spatula."
"What?" You say. "It is a spatula."
"Nope." They insist.
You say, "Okay, prove that it is not a spatula."
The person says to you. I can't prove that it is not a spatula, because I don't know what a spatula is... but I know you did not bring me a spatula."

You want to facepalm, right?
That is exactly what you are doing here, sir.
You are asking persons to bring an example of freewill, and when one is brought to you, you say they have not done so. Why? You do not know if it is freewill, because you cannot prove nor disprove freewill.
There are intelligent people on these forums. Would you agree?
Would you want to treat us as if we are 10 years old?
Here is
what you said, in black and white.
It [freewill] can't be proved. Because it [freewill] relies on determination.
To
prove determination one would have to examine literally everything that has ever happened and show that it was caused by preceding conditions. That's obviously not possible.
So no-one has asked for the claim to be proved. At any time. But what has been asked, more times that you could possibly imagine, is for an example to
disprove it, which can easily be done. If the claim is being rejected, (as opposed to being merely hand waved away coupled with a counter claim made that we have free will because 'gee, it's just so
obvious') then literally all that is needed is an example where a choice has been made 'that is not based on any determining factors, on any antecedent conditions'.
So
a computer claim that determinism renders free will obsolete, makes it impossible for free will to be proved, even though
the one making the computer claim for determinism, being a reality that renders freewill a non reality, cannot disprove, nor prove freewill.
You have not thought this through, and moreover, your reasoning is not rational.
Is it any wonder that your argument also makes rationality void.
The text doesn't say, but it's apparent that he might have been jealous. God gave Abel the thumbs up but denigrated Cain. Jealousy is an incredibly strong emotion. So in the absence of any other information I'd say that determined his action.
So?
Did he have options?
Could he have decided otherwise?
Then he did not have to act on his emotions. Freewill.
I have urges, and I do not always act on those urges.
One's emotions do not determine one's decisions.
It is often said that women are more driven by their emotions, while men use their thinking faculties.
Because our emotions may be fueling desires, we do not have to give in to those desires. We can make a free willed decision to go contrary to those desires. James 1:13-15
But I should point out that your position is not that we can't definitely decide which causal factor was instrumental, but that there were NO causal factors. Which isn't the case here, obviously. As you literally say 'why did other causal factors not determine Cain's decision? and 'there were "causal factors" '.
No. That misrepresents my position.
I am saying that there do not have to be
past causal factors, and that even when making decisions, that involve past determining factors, that still does not mean we do not make free willed decisions.
Cain had options, and there were
more than one "causal factors" at play.
How do you respond to that fact... was Cain's decision determined by two "determining factors", or more?
I think that you're arguing now simply because you don't like the claim. You don't seem to be following the argument at all. To the point where you are now using examples which support my claim but dismantle yours.
You've made enough distractions in this thread already.
No need to make another. Just address the question.
How does this example support your claim.
I don't like using emoticons, but it is oh so tempting to put a big 'sigh...' right here.
You just gave two antecedent conditions. Your wants and desires, your likes and dislikes are all antecedent conditions. They are some of the main ones you use to make a decision. I'm going to make myself a coffee when I finish typing this because the only tea available is Earl Grey and I do not like drinking it.
Here's two antecedent conditions:
You want to be a lawyer.
Being a lawyer pays well.
Here's another two:
You don't want to be a janitor.
Being a janitor pays badly.
Now you have to make a choice of career based on those 4 conditions. Hey, I know which ones you're going to pick! It'll be the first two. So, and this is the important bit, they will be the antecedent conditions that determined your choice.
It seems you are not aware of the difference between a cause and a condition.
Now would be a good time to educate yourself in this matter, since technology is available to even the youngest of minds.
Don't let this opportunity pass you by.
Difference between a cause and a condition.
What you highlighted, are condition, not causes.
I am making a decision based on the conditions around me, and hence I have various options, from which I make a free willed decision.
After you are educated, respond again, since your post is void, on the basis that it is entirely false.
How can you ask that, and then state this?
You are asking the question, then giving the answer in the very next sentence...
Yes. You are not aware of that.
Which country do you live in?
It was not a question though. It was a statement. hence, no question mark... and an answer was expected.
Are you from around these parts.
Don't tell me... You're bored, right.
I understand. the post is now 161 pages, and you are seeing how wrong you are.
You probably are asking yourself, "How did I make this mistake? i should have given it more thought."
Don't worry. It has happened to all of us. it's a product of imperfection.
Please stop using the term 'prove'. Just keep think 'Popper'. It can't be proved, but it can be disproved. I am claiming that it is true because there is literally no event of which I am aware that wasn't caused by something. Yet again, all you have to do to prove your position is to give a single, solitary, undeniable example from the macro world (which is where we make decisions).
Prove my position? LOL
The questions are becoming more inane...
How in heaven's name can you ask how we prove that we make choices?
Brad. Are you alert?
How does any of this prove you make choices whether free will exists or not.? is asked in response to the poster who is trying to support
your claim that "you make choices whether free will exists or not".
Have you forgotten what you said?
The request is to prove that you make choices whether free will exists or not. In other words, your assumption is that free will is not the result of your making choices... and you are to prove that.
Is that too high for you?
Try this.
You made a presumption that choice can exist without free will.
Is that easier?
That should be elementary.
Hang on...are you now admitting that all choices are influenced by knowledge?
LOL. Are you now claiming that knowledge is an antecedent cause?
How much crazier are you willing to make it?
I can keep up.