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Forcing the Chruch to accept homosexuality..

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KCKID

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KCKID,
Nope, the Bible says God looked for a companion for man and made woman, it was for this reason a man shall be united with his wife. God’s word says it was that reason and not the reason you are giving. The views you are presenting are not Christian.

The point is there is no such thing as ‘gay people’ in the Bible and ‘gay sex’ can only be condemned same sex relations. To keep using these humanistic concepts is contrary to the word of God.

So, we're not only kicking out the 4th-command, we're also getting rid of the 7th-command ...? That leaves 8!

Phinehas, my friend ...you don't know what you're talking about if you don't recognize and acknowledge the subserviant role of a man's wife in scripture. In other words, what IS the point of discussing anything with you?
 
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KCKID

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Nope, the Bible says God looked for a companion for man and made woman, it was for this reason a man shall be united with his wife. God’s word says it was that reason and not the reason you are giving. The views you are presenting are not Christian.

Phinehas, I realize that I'm probably being foolish for continuing this on but why MUST one's 'companion' be someone of the opposite gender? I simply don't understand the reasoning here. Why cannot one's companion be of one's choosing since God DID, after all, give us freedom of choice? DO we have freedom of choice or don't we?

Is my view not Christian because I believe in the freedom to choose (whatever) for myself?
 
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Phinehas2

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KCKID,
Where in scripture are we told to recognize authority in Paul ...or else?
I agree with drich0150, again this is another fundamental view you have presented which isn’t the Christian position. The NT of Jesus Christ is conveyed by the writers, including those who wrote the gospels and those like Paul who wrote the epistles. All support each others claims.

In specific regard to you point, Paul received what he preached and wrote directly from the risen Lord, and endorsed by Luke and Peter no less. So we are told to recognise what he wrote as from Jesus Christ.

So, we're not only kicking out the 4th-command, we're also getting rid of the 7th-command ...? That leaves 8!
I am not kicking anything out, whatever you are suggesting about the 10 commandments of the OT law,
any question of the subservience of women does not affect the truth of Jesus Christ’s NT affirmation of God creation purpose of man and woman in union.

 
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Phinehas2

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KCKID,
Phinehas, I realize that I'm probably being foolish for continuing this on but why MUST one's 'companion' be someone of the opposite gender?
Sorry but the word of God says woman was made for man and for this reason a man shall be united with his wife. So it cant be the same sex?


Is my view not Christian because I believe in the freedom to choose (whatever) for myself?
Yes. Your view simply denies what the word of God says which Jesus Christ who is the truth, affirms.

Jesus said His disciples obey His teaching (John 14-17)
2 Corinthians 10:5 “We demolish arguments and every pretension that sets itself up against the knowledge of God, and we take captive every thought to make it obedient to Christ.”
Colossians 2:8 “See to it that no one takes you captive through hollow and deceptive philosophy, which depends on human tradition and the basic principles of this world rather than on Christ.”

The views you are expressing are not confroming to Christ's teaching but the basic principles of the world which is hollow and deceptive philosophy.
 
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KCKID

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Sorry but the word of God says woman was made for man and for this reason a man shall be united with his wife. So it cant be the same sex?
But the very same God says that we are to execute disobedient children so why are we not doing this? Why are we not doing this, Phinehas?

Your 'arguments' are simply robotic and give no indication of reasoning abilities whatever. Gay people do not desire a 'companion' of the opposite gender. But, according to your strange approach on this topic they at least have to pretend to be attracted to the opposite sex in order to appease God ...and you. Is that about right?

Yes. Your view simply denies what the word of God says which Jesus Christ who is the truth, affirms.
Jesus said His disciples obey His teaching (John 14-17).

So, then it's perfectly reasonable to execute disobedient children because 'the word of God sez' ...? Where do you draw a reasonable line, Phinehas, between what God said THEN (OT) that we DON'T need to follow and what God said THEN that we DO need to follow? Does an 'old command' need to be affirmed by Jesus in order to apply for we of today? Alternatively, as long as Jesus does not affirm an 'old command' does this mean that that command is no longer applicable to we of today? Seriously ...how does it work?

I really don't think that you know.

2 Corinthians 10:5 “We demolish arguments and every pretension that sets itself up against the knowledge of God, and we take captive every thought to make it obedient to Christ.”
Colossians 2:8 “See to it that no one takes you captive through hollow and deceptive philosophy, which depends on human tradition and the basic principles of this world rather than on Christ.”

The views you are expressing are not confroming to Christ's teaching but the basic principles of the world which is hollow and deceptive philosophy.
But, but ...Jesus taught nothing about homosexuality - either for or against - so how am I/we not conforming to Jesus' teaching on this issue? I have no idea what you are talking about, Phinehas. Do you?
 
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Polycarp1

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Polycarp1,

The word of God is living and active and judges the thoughts and attitudes of the heart, It has not judged anyone in particular, those who have felt judged by the word of God have accused those who uphold the word, it is the word that has done that.

To be meek and humble is to uphold God’s word, to dispute it by such as your argument does, reasoning one knows best, is pride.
Yes I have repeated the scriptures of God’s creation purpose upheld throughout the Biblical testimony, and will do so every time someone posts about sexuality, homosexuality or heterosexuality as these are modern false concepts, this is a Christian section of the forum and you must expect the Biblical scriptures to be upheld.

I have never said anything against the word of God. I have had some nasty things to say about the false doctrine that the entire Bible, from the explicit words of Satan in Job to Paul's distinction between what he is passing on to the Corinthians from the Lord and what is his own advice, is "God's Word." And I am firmly against Phinehastic Infallibility -- you are not God, and what you think you learn from the Bible does not necessarily equal what God intends.

And yes, this IS a Christian-only forum on CF. It would be nice if you would act like you too comprehend that.
 
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OllieFranz

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KCKID,
Nope, the Bible says God looked for a companion for man and made woman, it was for this reason a man shall be united with his wife. God’s word says it was that reason and not the reason you are giving. The views you are presenting are not Christian.

The point is there is no such thing as ‘gay people’ in the Bible and ‘gay sex’ can only be condemned same sex relations. To keep using these humanistic concepts is contrary to the word of God.

I looked at the verse in the original Hebrew. The word used is "ezer," which means help or helper. The Word appears 21 times in the Hebrew scriptures. 18 times, it is the LORD Who is the Help. Typical is Psalm 115:11: "Ye that fear the LORD, trust in the LORD: he [is] their help and their shield."

The other three verses include the two in Genesis 2 where God says that Adam needs a "helpmeet." We'll get back to them in a moment. The remaining verse is Ezekiel 12:14, where the prophet says that the allies of the prince of Jerusalem, who come to help defend against the armies of Babylon will be scattered and the prince will be taken to Babylon).

So, in 19 verses, "ezer" is a helper, and more specifically, someone who helps you out of a bad situation that you can't get yourself out of. Now, if this is the reason Eve was created in Genesis 2, she was a horrible failure. Instead of helping Adam out of trouble, she helped him into it. Woman was cursed through Eve, just as the Hamitic peoples were cursed through Ham.

Both were counted as property in the inventory of household goods in elaborating on the tenth commandment: "Thou shalt not covet thy neighbour's house, thou shalt not covet thy neighbour's wife, nor his manservant, nor his maidservant, nor his ox, nor his ass, nor any thing that [is] thy neighbour's." (Exodus 20:17; see also Deuteronomy 5:21)
 
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drich0150

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Paul's 'pointing out' that the laws contained in the ordinances having been nailed to the cross has NOTHING to do with what I asked of you and you know it. I asked for the Book, Chapter and Verse where GOD canceled the 4th-command (thereby making the Ten Commandments NINE Commandments!) and made it non-applicable to Christians. All you have offered is a red herring because YOU KNOW that no such scripture exists but that the majority of Christians disregard the 4th-command anyway. One's practicing what they preach in one regard adds credibility to that person's views on other issues ...or, vice verse.

If this is truly the case then start another thread and discuss it there. This thread is about efforts that are forcing the church to accept sin rather than allowing it to teach a doctrine of forgiveness.


There is nothing unchristian in questioning Paul. And I DO question some of the scriptures of Paul as do many other Christians. Where in scripture are we told to recognize authority in Paul ...or else? Paul has nothing to do with one's salvation. Being a Christian is being a believer in Jesus ...not Paul!
The Same writer that helped establish the deity of Christ in the Book of Luke Does the Same with the Apostle Paul, in the book of Acts. To question Paul's authority is to question the Authority of Christ.

As said, the question I asked of you - though off-topic - WAS relevant in regard to Book, Chapter and Verse that you were demanding of others. But I will drop this issue for now so as not to further derail. However, I do believe that I made my point which was all that I wanted to do

Again, you made a weak comparison citing a rule governing ceremonial law, in order to try and substantiate a unauthorized change in the Moral code. You may honestly not understand the difference between the two, maybe this is even why you are claiming an undeserved victory in the point you were trying to make. Either way, you need to understand that Book Chapter and verse was given to answer your query from a Christian perspective. If you can not accept The book chapter and verse presented then maybe you should looking into further separating what you believe from known Christianity. That way when you tire of this path you will have something to come back to, but if you continue down this road you will have nothing to return home to.
 
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drich0150

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Phinehas, I realize that I'm probably being foolish for continuing this on but why MUST one's 'companion' be someone of the opposite gender? I simply don't understand the reasoning here.

Because there is absolutely nothing in the bible that says that one's partner could be of the same sex. That is unless you can provide Book Chapter and Verse that says it can.

Why cannot one's companion be of one's choosing since God DID, after all, give us freedom of choice? DO we have freedom of choice or don't we?

No we do not. We have the freedom to Choose Not freedom of Choice. Freedom to Choose is the ability to Choose ones own will over the expressed will of God. This is known as sin. Sin separates us from God. If we do not find atonement from sin we will be separated from God eternally. Freedom of choice implies that one is free to choose what he or she wills without regard or consequence to the expressed will of God.


Is my view not Christian because I believe in the freedom to choose (whatever) for myself?
Precisely, we are not given the freedom to choose whatever we wish and it be made acceptable before God, simply because we have chose to do it. Christianity works on the principle of Sin, Repentance, and Forgiveness of that sin. This is in stark contrast to your religious beliefs that says anything is acceptable so long as I will it to be. This in No Way Shape Or Form Has Anything To Do With Christianity.

The Fact that you can not provide Book Chapter and Verse to support this doctrine should be raising all kinds of red flags. Plus couple that with the idea that you have to simply trust the person who first introduced this theology to you, should have placed these practices outside the realm of Christianity for you. How can you possible reconcile the differences between what you believe and established Christianity?
 
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drich0150

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But the very same God says that we are to execute disobedient children so why are we not doing this? Why are we not doing this,

Because "we" understand the differences between the Moral Code, The ceremonial Law and the Civil Law of God. We also know that only the moral code was republished/taught in the NT. Not as a Means of obtaining righteousness, but as a way to identify sin in our lives.




So, then it's perfectly reasonable to execute disobedient children because 'the word of God sez' ...? Where do you draw a reasonable line, Phinehas, between what God said THEN (OT) that we DON'T need to follow and what God said THEN that we DO need to follow? Does an 'old command' need to be affirmed by Jesus in order to apply for we of today? Alternatively, as long as Jesus does not affirm an 'old command' does this mean that that command is no longer applicable to we of today? Seriously ...how does it work?
If you are looking for an honest place to "Draw the Line" Learn to Identify the Law of God.



But, but ...Jesus taught nothing about homosexuality - either for or against - so how am I/we not conforming to Jesus' teaching on this issue?
Jesus taught that it was a sin to even Lust after another outside of a sanctified marriage.(Mt5) The Fact that a Homosexual relationship can never be sanctified before the Lord proves that all homosexual activity is a sin, a sin like all other sexual activity despite gender.
 
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drich0150

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Gay people do not desire a 'companion' of the opposite gender. But, according to your strange approach on this topic they at least have to pretend to be attracted to the opposite sex in order to appease God ...and you. Is that about right?

What does attraction have to do with Love?

Most people in the first century did not marry for "feelings," and yet the command for a husband to love his Wife remains.

what of all of those who married and were not attracted to their husbands or wives? To your best estimation was True love outside of their reach, just because they did not lust after one another in the beginning?

Are you seriously trying to build an argument that allows us to simply follow our lust?

 
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OllieFranz

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[W]hy MUST one's 'companion' be someone of the opposite gender?

Because there is absolutely nothing in the bible that says that one's partner could be of the same sex. That is unless you can provide Book Chapter and Verse that says it can.

KC asks about the "companion" because that is the word Phinehas used, and he used it (erroneously as I showed) to refer to the "ezer" ("help") of Genesis 2. And in Genesis 2, beasts are rejected as "help," but that is all that is rejected. Mankind of either gender are not rejected as help.

As I showed previously, in Ezekiel, "ezer" refers to military allies of the prince of Jerusalem. And the variant form "azar" is used to refer to all kinds of human helpers (as well as the same Divine Help to which "ezer" usually refers). Nowhere is the help restricted to one sex or the other (with the possible exception of assumptions due to culture, not Divine Writ -- and except for Genesis 2, the assumption would be that the help was male).

Edited to add: And everything that Genesis 2:24 says about a wife as "ezer," 1 Samuel 18:1-2 says about David and Jonathan.
 
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Phinehas2

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KCKID,
But the very same God says that we are to execute disobedient children so why are we not doing this? Why are we not doing this, Phinehas?
Because there is no ‘we’ about it. Christians do not execute, Christians follow Christ’s teaching and are not to kill, there is no condemnation in Christ. You are referring to OT law and covenant. God’s creation purpose which came before OT law and remains is for man and woman in union. Your view is not the Christian position.


But, but ...Jesus taught nothing about homosexuality - either for or against - so how am I/we not conforming to Jesus' teaching on this issue? I have no idea what you are talking about, Phinehas. Do you?
This creation purpose is upheld with condemnations of same sex relations which is by definition homosexuality. So yes Jesus did teach about it, He taught it is error, it was error a Sodom, in OT law in Leviticus, was error in ancient Greek culture and Roman culture and is always error.

This is His teaching, ‘we’ uphold His teaching and demolish the empty and hollow pretention you are presenting against this truth.
 
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Phinehas2

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Polycarp1,
… to Paul's distinction between what he is passing on to the Corinthians from the Lord and what is his own advice, is "God's Word." And I am firmly against Phinehastic Infallibility -- you are not God, and what you think you learn from the Bible does not necessarily equal what God intends.
I have quoted the Bible Polycarp1 it’s the word of God, Paul received what he preached from the risen Lord. If you can only see the word of God as my opinion or the apostle Paul’s opinion then you haven’t got a basic grasp of historic apostolic Christianity. Your Anglican Communion has, see Lambeth 1.10, but you aren’t even in line with your won churches position.


Same sex relations are error and detestable to God, there is no place for defending them in a Christian forum section.
 
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Phinehas2

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Olliefranz,
The word is ‘ezer’ and helper is the correct translation, companion is not strictly correct, so God looked for a helper and subsequently made woman and it was for this reason a man shall be united with his wife. So what is your problem, the helper God created to be in union with man is woman.
So tell me what is ‘gay people’ apart from a humanistic identification which is contrary to God’s purpose?
 
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drich0150

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KC asks about the "companion" because that is the word Phinehas used, and he used it (erroneously as I showed) to refer to the "ezer" ("help") of Genesis 2. And in Genesis 2, beasts are rejected as "help," but that is all that is rejected. Mankind of either gender are not rejected as help.

As I showed previously, in Ezekiel, "ezer" refers to military allies of the prince of Jerusalem. And the variant form "azar" is used to refer to all kinds of human helpers (as well as the same Divine Help to which "ezer" usually refers). Nowhere is the help restricted to one sex or the other (with the possible exception of assumptions due to culture, not Divine Writ -- and except for Genesis 2, the assumption would be that the help was male).

Edited to add: And everything that Genesis 2:24 says about a wife as "ezer," 1 Samuel 18:1-2 says about David and Jonathan.

In turn, nowhere is it written or implied that Azar nor "Ezer" refers to a "helper/help" in a sexual capacity. Eve wasn't created for just sex. Which is what you seem to be implying. She was to be a Helper First. It was till after the Fall did they even know that they were naked. Without this knowledge how could one hope to have sex? After the Fall of man it was not something that could be avoided, in a way that Eve could remain Adam's Helper. So God sanctified sex. Note: The only sanctified pretext in which sexual activity is permitted by God is through Marriage. Even if Adam Married his "Helper" The word Helper is not specifically used to described a man's wife. Nor does it describe someone to have sex with. At the same time under the covenant of marriage Adam's "helper" was the one He had sex with.

Which brings us full circle. If you contend that a male "helper" is someone to have sex with then you must show a context where a same sex marriage is sanctified before God. Because even in your example of Adam having Sex with his "Helper" it is not out side the bounds of a sanctified marriage.

As For your comparison of 1Samuel 18:1-2 1 After David had finished talking with Saul, Jonathan became one in spirit with David, and he loved him as himself. 2 From that day Saul kept David with him and did not let him return to his father's house.

And Gen2:
24 For this reason a man will leave his father and mother and be united to his wife, and they will become one flesh.

This is an apples to oranges comparison, of these two verses, that only works as a you have indicated, as maybe some sort of fan fiction.

The only thing that even closely resembles the relationship between David and Johnathan and Adam and eve, Is the part about David not allowing Johnathan to return to his father's house. This is no way shape or form represents "The Reason Man shall leave His Father and Mother, and become one flesh with his wife." At best this comparison is guilt of wishful thinking.
 
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Loukas

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Wait a second. Which human nature did Jesus redeem? The human nature an sich, which is genderless or, to put it more accurately, consists of both the aspects, or the masculine/feminine one? If he redeemed the whole human nature, we all have to be given the potential to follow in his footsteps, i.e. become full humans in his image. And is it provided only by the complementarity of sexes? How come, if the Hebrew tradition and the Christian tradition up until late centuries didn't recognize genders to be complementary, but of hierarchical nature? The teaching was that there is God, who is the perfect one, the man, made in the image of God, and there is the woman made in the image of man. If the woman was less human, which this teaching implies, than you couldn't achieve the complementarity of sexes in marriage, because your wife couldn't offer you more than you already had (except for children, of course). We find this thinking not only in the Hebrew authors, but also the Fathers of the Church. Marriage was meant for the blood to be passed on and hence it offered life after death (which the Jews didn't believe in sensu proprio). It was a socio-economic institution, not a bond of love, trust and commitment (there was commitment, but forced by blood purity reasons). The notion that marriage may be something different than merely a reproductive institution was enabled by the teachings of the New Testament that grant people eternal life as individuals. It lasted a few hundred years before it was accepted (though not by the Roman Catholic Church, which prohibits its members to marry if they can't or don't want to have children). Now we think of marriage as the last stage of a romantic relationship... which is a complete revolution! It became a combination of what it had been before (a contract between families), friendship (that couldn't develop since women were infinitely inferior to men) and romantic love (which had nothing to do with it - check the medieval poetry).
Now, if we recognise that men and women are of the same quality (basically, a human one), were created in the image of the same God and are both to be saved by Christ who redeemed the whole human nature (are to gain that nature), than we could understand the purpose of relationships as supporting the growth in full humanity, which consists of both the aspects). It's like elevating human beings to a higher level. This goal can be achieved, as I believe, both by same sex and "traditional" relationships, because we all have the parts of the puzzle - it's just the matter of putting them together... together. Friendship between men has been for centuries considered to be of much more spiritual value than any kind of inter-gender relationship, because only men were thought of as (possibly) fully human. There was love and tenderness (and not rarely the erotic dimension too :)), intellectual intimacy and all what marriages lacked. You couldn't make a woman you partner. How come? An INFERIOR human being? From the very same reason sex between men was prohibited... not to allow one to be "like a woman" (that's the Hebrew word for homosexual intercourse - lying like a woman). How could they be allowed to spit on their superior quality? Now, when we are ready to consider both the sexes equal in terms of humanity (in the very least...), everything should change. Marriages bacame relationships of character previously reserved for same sex ones - they are meant to be true partnerships in regard to the intellectual, physical and spiritual dimensions. Only men could do that for one another in the past... but now, in fever of fighting the filthy sodomites, we tend to forget about that and ignore it, while sticking to old concepts of sexual purity invented to keep the Jewish nation clean and free of any resemblance of the gentiles' practices. Not it has changed - posterity is not our eternal life, the sole purpose of it. But why, why do so many Christians live as if reproduction was everything that matters?
After the Fall of man it was not something that could be avoided, in a way that Eve could remain Adam's Helper. So God sanctified sex
Well... and I thought it was one of His best ideas... did he really have to sanctify it additionally? :) What is possible is that it became a necessity for the human race to exist, it started to be of reproductive use only. That, if anything, is the consequence of the fall!
 
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drich0150

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you are not God, and what you think you learn from the Bible does not necessarily equal what God intends.

Even if this were true, The bible is the only source material we might use to discover the expressed will of God. Now because of this, we (As Christians) are responsible for His complete word. Keeping that in mind while you consider your own opening statement, in that "You are not God." (I am assuming that you are speaking of yourself as well) You do not have the authority to pick and choose the parts of the bible that suit you and discard the rest.

As it is, God takes full responsibility for what has been written and passed along thus far. If their is something in there not of His will, it is up to Him to change it, or forgive us for being in the bible but outside of His will.. Your job is to reconcile your life and your various theologies and doctrines to fit the Expressed will of God As The Bible records it. Not the other way around. Again, unless you claim deity.
 
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drich0150

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Wait a second. Which human nature did Jesus redeem? The human nature an sich, which is genderless or, to put it more accurately, consists of both the aspects, or the masculine/feminine one? If he redeemed the whole human nature, we all have to be given the potential to follow in his footsteps, i.e. become full humans in his image. And is it provided only by the complementarity of sexes? How come, if the Hebrew tradition and the Christian tradition up until late centuries didn't recognize genders to be complementary, but of hierarchical nature? The teaching was that there is God, who is the perfect one, the man, made in the image of God, and there is the woman made in the image of man. If the woman was less human, which this teaching implies, than you couldn't achieve the complementarity of sexes in marriage, because your wife couldn't offer you more than you already had (except for children, of course). We find this thinking not only in the Hebrew authors, but also the Fathers of the Church. Marriage was meant for the blood to be passed on and hence it offered life after death (which the Jews didn't believe in sensu proprio). It was a socio-economic institution, not a bond of love, trust and commitment (there was commitment, but forced by blood purity reasons). The notion that marriage may be something different than merely a reproductive institution was enabled by the teachings of the New Testament that grant people eternal life as individuals. It lasted a few hundred years before it was accepted (though not by the Roman Catholic Church, which prohibits its members to marry if they can't or don't want to have children). Now we think of marriage as the last stage of a romantic relationship... which is a complete revolution! It became a combination of what it had been before (a contract between families), friendship (that couldn't develop since women were infinitely inferior to men) and romantic love (which had nothing to do with it - check the medieval poetry).
Now, if we recognise that men and women are of the same quality (basically, a human one), were created in the image of the same God and are both to be saved by Christ who redeemed the whole human nature (are to gain that nature), than we could understand the purpose of relationships as supporting the growth in full humanity, which consists of both the aspects). It's like elevating human beings to a higher level. This goal can be achieved, as I believe, both by same sex and "traditional" relationships, because we all have the parts of the puzzle - it's just the matter of putting them together... together. Friendship between men has been for centuries considered to be of much more spiritual value than any kind of inter-gender relationship, because only men were thought of as (possibly) fully human. There was love and tenderness (and not rarely the erotic dimension too :)), intellectual intimacy and all what marriages lacked. You couldn't make a woman you partner. How come? An INFERIOR human being? From the very same reason sex between men was prohibited... not to allow one to be "like a woman" (that's the Hebrew word for homosexual intercourse - lying like a woman). How could they be allowed to spit on their superior quality? Now, when we are ready to consider both the sexes equal in terms of humanity (in the very least...), everything should change. Marriages bacame relationships of character previously reserved for same sex ones - they are meant to be true partnerships in regard to the intellectual, physical and spiritual dimensions. Only men could do that for one another in the past... but now, in fever of fighting the filthy sodomites, we tend to forget about that and ignore it, while sticking to old concepts of sexual purity invented to keep the Jewish nation clean and free of any resemblance of the gentiles' practices. Not it has changed - posterity is not our eternal life, the sole purpose of it. But why, why do so many Christians live as if reproduction was everything that matters?
This mess in addition to being hard to read is just empty conjecture, mixed with speculation as to how people view marriage. i might add a view that scripture does not support. We are told that a man and a woman have different roles to play, one being sub servant to the other. You have confused these roles to fit your agenda. There is no point in arguing this line by line with you because this whole paragraph tells me that if you are not willing to address the scriptural issues with your doctrine on sin and forgiveness your just going to try and change the subject to something you are more comfortable arguing..
..try again..


Well... and I thought it was one of His best ideas...
If we were indeed working from your doctrine of: "Because i said so." Then I would be forced to agree with you. As it is this is just more personal speculation.


did he really have to sanctify it additionally? :) What is possible is that it became a necessity for the human race to exist, it started to be of reproductive use only.
I will reword this for you so it reads correctly.
God did indeed sanctify our sexual relationships after the Fall through Marriage. Even though Sex is was NOT a Necessity for the Human Race to exist (As witnessed through the creation of Adam and Eve) it was the way God Chose for us to procreate on our own.

That, if anything, is the consequence of the fall!
The consequence of the fall is the ability to choose our will over that of God's expressed will.
 
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OllieFranz

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Note: Just because I'm known to hold one position, and I criticize certain details in one of the arguments for another position, that does not mean that I am claiming that my critique is the argument for my position. It does not even necessarily mean that I am claiming that the critique is an argument against the position held by the person whose argument I'm critiquing. Too many people here jump in with the opinion, "Well that's not a good argument for your position," and all I can do is shake my head in astonishment that they thought it was supposed to be. Especially when, in order to do so they have to make some absurd assumptions about what I "really" said.

In turn, nowhere is it written or implied that Azar nor "Ezer" refers to a "helper/help" in a sexual capacity.
Agreed
Eve wasn't created for just sex.
Finally someone gets it!

Which is what you seem to be implying.
No, that is what those who try to combine Genesis 2:24 and Leviticus 18:22 and come up with "David and Jonathan were merely casual acquaintances" imply.

Thank you for coming around.

She was to be a Helper First. It was till after the Fall did they even know that they were naked. Without this knowledge how could one hope to have sex? After the Fall of man it was not something that could be avoided, in a way that Eve could remain Adam's Helper. So God sanctified sex.
But now you've gone off the deep end. You claim that sex was not invented until after the Fall, but Adam and Eve were commanded to be fruitful and multiply before the Fall, just as the fishes and the birds were commanded before them.

And I don't see how this argument would support either the no same-sex marriage position or its opposite. So if you are using it to make your point you fail, because the premise fails: the Bible puts the sequence differently, and if you are using it to apply Reductio Ad Absurdum to the opposite position you fail because it does not lead to that position.

Note: The only sanctified pretext in which sexual activity is permitted by God is through Marriage. Even if Adam Married his "Helper" The word Helper is not specifically used to described a man's wife. Nor does it describe someone to have sex with. At the same time under the covenant of marriage Adam's "helper" was the one He had sex with.
No, the "help" function is totally different from any sex function. That is why Genesis 2:24 is not about "marriage can only be a man and a woman." (Nor, incidentally, is it about two men can marry, but then, no one claims it is.) It is those who claim that it is about sex who 1) confuse "help" with sex and 2) imply that the only point in marriage is the sex.

In fact, while sex is usually a part of marriage, it is not the be-all and end-all of marriage. Marriage is a total relationship, and sex is only one small part of a relationship.

Although sex is necessary to produce children, and we can therefore deduce that since children are a blessing to a marriage, then sex is blessed in the context of marriage, the only time the Bible actually mentions sex it is describing sin. Blessed sex within marriage is only hinted at, and only in a few passages: Adam, Cain, and Elkanah "knew their wives" and their wives concieved and bore them sons; Husbands and wives should not "defraud" one another; it is better to marry than to burn; and the marriage bed should not be defiled.

All direct mention of sex is mention of sin, and the five verses that speak of same-sex sexual acts are describing acts that are still sin even when they involve cross-sex activity: pagan ritual sex, rape, prostitution, wanton promiscuity.

But none of this has anything to do with a person's relationship with his "help." Genesis 2:24 does not apply.

Which brings us full circle. If you contend that a male "helper" is someone to have sex with then you must show a context where a same sex marriage is sanctified before God.
I never contended that Genesis 2:24 is about sex (it is not). Marriage is only one possible relationship a person can have with someone who is his "help." After all, David did not marry God.

Because even in your example of Adam having Sex with his "Helper" it is not out side the bounds of a sanctified marriage.
That is not my example. It is your strawman. Genesis 2 is not about sex.

As For your comparison of 1Samuel 18:1-2 1 After David had finished talking with Saul, Jonathan became one in spirit with David, and he loved him as himself. 2 From that day Saul kept David with him and did not let him return to his father's house.

And Gen2:
24 For this reason a man will leave his father and mother and be united to his wife, and they will become one flesh.

This is an apples to oranges comparison, of these two verses, that only works as a you have indicated, as maybe some sort of fan fiction.

The only thing that even closely resembles the relationship between David and Johnathan and Adam and eve, Is the part about David not allowing Johnathan to return to his father's house. This is no way shape or form represents "The Reason Man shall leave His Father and Mother, and become one flesh with his wife." At best this comparison is guilt of wishful thinking.
You are leaving out the fact that Jonathan's soul was "knit" with David's which is an equivalent emotional commitment to a husband and wife becoming one flesh. And the facts that come from other passages that marriages and other "help" relationships involved a tangible commitment in the form of a covenant (contract) and an exchange of gifts, both of which also occur in 1 Samuel 18:1-4.

And their relationship certainly was a "help" relationship. Jonathan helped David escape Saul's wrath, and David promised to raise Jonthan's family as his own, which he did with Mephibosheth.

In conclusion, Genesis 2 has nothing to do with sex; Leviticus 18:22 has nothing to do with marriage or any other "help" relationship,

And I don't know and I don't care, whether Jonathan and David were lovers. If it were any of our business, either way, the Bible would have told us. It does describe a close, committed relationship. That is enough.
 
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