pat34lee
Messianic
- Sep 13, 2011
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More assumptions. There is nothing about "cultivated crops" vs "uncultivated crops" in the text but rather it simply states that there was no man to till the soil which may also have to do with what is stated later after Adam fell and the 'adamah was cursed:
You continually bypass the phrase 'of the field' as if it didn't make a neat distinction between wild and cultivated plants. While it is always good to double or triple check what we have been taught, you cannot just create new theology from a few verses that does not line up with other scriptures. Where are the other scripture witnesses that prove your interpretation to the exclusion of the way it is normally read?
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