Sorry I didn't get to this before. I saw your question and wanted to give you an answer, but I stepped away and forgot.
Yes, there are some gender irregularities throughout the Hebrew text. For example, the word נַעַר is used for both boys and girls in the Torah. The Massoretes added a kamats after the resh to indicate that it was feminine, but the original probably would have been the same (just נַעַר instead of נַעֲרָ

. In this regard, it probably resembled the Greek παῖς, which is used both for a boy (ὁ παῖς

and for a girl (ἡ παῖς

.
Regarding pronoun reflection, another irregularity you see is that the singular can jump to the plural or the plural to the singular without any apparent sense. This occurs in the text of the Shema, for example.
Ruth 1:11 reads
וַתֹּ֤אמֶר נָֽעֳמִי֙ שֹׁ֣בְנָה בְנֹתַ֔י לָ֥מָּה תֵלַ֖כְנָה עִמִּ֑י הַעֽוֹד־לִ֤י בָנִים֙ בְּֽמֵעַ֔י וְהָי֥וּ לָכֶ֖ם לַֽאֲנָשִֽׁים׃. It would be strange if the same simplification principle alive in modern Hebrew even had effects in that time. Normally, Ruth is a great book to begin with, since it offers so many feminine forms to get used to. In this case, it's an exception. I literally hear people in Israel say, "מה אתם רוצות", which makes me cringe. Have you found other examples like this in the text of Ruth?
I'm often surprised by ungrammatical (non-agreeing) pronouns and verbs in the Bible. Didn't they have editors back then?
