Saulball said:
ugghhh
yes, he stated it TWICE!(in 2 different books) its in the New testament! God intended for it to be there! Was it for our use, YES! Again, you would even agree (you have not disagreed) that 1 timmy and titus are the books on church order. I have used those 2 books to show that Men were to be overseers. Galations 3:28 is not about LEADERSHIP...read the PASSAGE, not the verse...its about salvation.
I fully agree that the passage in Galations is about salvation. However, I don't see salvation as being limited to just going to heaven. The word 'sozo' Paul uses for salvation means, literally "the fullness of messianic deliverance". Salvation encompasses every area of our life here in this world-- and in the world to come. It affects our relationships with each other (including how leadership works). It affects our marriages. It affects and changes every aspect of how we function in this world. Therefore any verse pertaining to salvation pertains to every aspect of the Christian life-- particularly how we relate to each other within the Church.
Using what the bible says the man must not be divorced! (one-woman man), why does it matter if he was single.
Actually neither passage says anything about divorce. It says 'the husband of one wife'. Since polygamy was still practiced by some of the people to whom it was written, that gives it a completely different meaning. Even today, certain primitive cultures practice polygamy-- and when missionaries go and share the gospel, this passage has to be dealt with.
Now the reason I ask if they were single or not is this... If you feel that it must strictly be 'the husband of one wife', then no single man would qualify-- since he is missing the 'one wife'. You are actually picking and choosing what to be literal on, even if you don't realize that is what you are doing.
And yes... that is significant, because some groups of Jews felt that one MUST be married to qualify to be a rabbi/teacher, etc. Simultaneously, certain groups, such as the Latin rite Catholic Church require clerical celibacy, while the other 21 churches under papal jurisdiction allow a priest/presbyter/elder (all the same word) to be married, yet require celibacy of bishops.
Remember, whatever interpretation you choose-- it must apply to ALL peoples of ALL times.
Was timothy single? Paul? That is an easy application when you look at the language.
Most scholars believe Paul was either widowed or divorced.
However, Paul TALKS about MEN and WOMEN in these passages (not just a singular "everyone" which could be interpreted either way) We know that women, like Phoebe, were deacons, or prophets. AND paul points this out in this PASSAGE...women can be DEACONESSES!! but when talking right above it, he states an elder should be a man, not divorced or remarried, I think most people with any sense understand that.
In the Titus passage, it states that Deacons are to be the 'husband of one wife' (Tim. 3:12) using exactly the same statement as he makes about elders in Titus. You believe that there can be female Deacons (there is only one word anywhere in the Greek-- no deacon/deaconess distinction), yet Titus says deacons are the 'husband of one wife'...... so which passage are you choosing to take literally? And why not both?
Paul's pattern of talking here is addressing BOTH es individually, for different offices. HOWEVER, when talking about ELDERS (in BOTH BOOKS!!! timmy and titus) he leaves it at MEN. This is not hard to understand. We can explain it away, but there is no scripture of Overseers of churches being women. I didn't make the rules, God did.
I agree God made the rules... I'm just saying you're reading a mistranslation of the rule book-- one that is including words that are NOT in the original. I posted the Greek/English interlinear earlier so that you could see that for yourself.
saying Paul was ambiguous, while he did it in 2 different books, books about church order, that GOD INSPIRED and left us for church order, is crazy. If all the scripture passages referred to a HE, I would agree that it was ambiguous, but he didn't. He related womens positions, what women and men were to do, etc. I'm sorry I take the bible literally, and don't explain it away. You could argue against any literal text and say "its ambiguos", but that is clearly not the case in these scriptures. Choose to believe it is, but I will take the literal meaning, rightly dividing what the books says on church order.
I'm glad you take the Bible so seriously... my concern is that you are taking an English translation literally, when the original language does NOT imply what you feel the English does. Please-- go back and look at the Greek.... the Greek wording IS ambiguous. It does not even have some of the words (such as the word 'man') in it-- that was added by the translator.