BananaSlug
Life is an experiment, experience it!
- Aug 26, 2005
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What was being talked about there, was the wicked state of man in the end. Context.
You have obviously shown that you have no care for context. The context of Genesis 2 clearly shows that Eden was planted after the creation of Adam. The verse stated nothing about the wicked state of man!
26 And as it was in the days of Noah, so it will be also in the days of the Son of Man: 27 They ate, they drank, they married wives, they were given in marriage, until the day that Noah entered the ark, and the flood came and destroyed them all. 28 Likewise as it was also in the days of Lot: They ate, they drank, they bought, they sold, they planted, they built; 29 but on the day that Lot went out of Sodom it rained fire and brimstone from heaven and destroyed them all. 30 Even so will it be in the day when the Son of Man is revealed. Luke 17:26-30
Jesus was showing that the peoples lives of the past (before the flood) were the same as those who lived before the destruction of Sodom and is going to be the same as those who will live in the future (when Christ returns but before the "eternal state").
Some denominations don't believe in the rapture. They interpret the Bible differently from other denominations.However, since you brought it up, I might be able to use that. See, in the tribulation, (most see that as after Jesus raptures the believers) as well as in the millenium, things are again different.
So now are you saying that the near future will be changed as well?Therefore it is possible that indeed, it will be the same as the days of Noah at that time!? Men on earth live a thousand years, for example in the millennium. In the tribulation a few possible clues for a universal change exist as well. For example, men will want to die, but won't be able to. That could indicate that the life processes have changed?
You do realize that verse was about Satan and the fallen angels?Also a third of the stars will fall, that sure seems to be a universal change!?
3Then another sign appeared in heaven: an enormous red dragon with seven heads and ten horns and seven crowns on his heads. 4His tail swept a third of the stars out of the sky and flung them to the earth. Revelations 12:3-4
The "solid pillars" are nothing more than your interpretation of scripture. Are other Christians opinions just as valid, even if they are different from yours? Other Christians here believe the physical laws of the past were the same as they are now. Are their opinions based on "solid pillars" or are you the only one who is right?If a man rests his opinion on solid pillars, it is of value. If one merely imagines a same state past, it is of no coinage.
You still haven't quite answered the question. Are you agreeing that you are a fallible depraved sinner? A yes or no will do.All men are fallible. All are depraved sinners. The issue is not about men, it is about so called science claims. It is also about the biblical alternative, and for that you need a bible case. I have one. Work on that.
(In reference to the bolded sentence) I thought the laws were different in the past!? Why would physical science have anything to do with the flood since the laws were different? Why would the flood waters have to "go down" in this different state past?No, I have no problem with pillow lava at all. Especially some right near the ocean! We should also remember that the flood waters went down. From a physical science perspective, it had to go somewhere. The explanations af it just settling in or something seem weak to me at best. Therefore, many things were covered by water that are not now.
Okay, so you are admitting pillow lava could have been formed during the flood. This is admitting that we have 1 piece of evidence where the physical laws of the past were the same as now (especially since you've admitted the "split" occurred over 100 years after the flood).
Then how did pillow lava get on the side of a mountain? You just admitted you accept the fact that pillow lava forms underwater. How would pillow lava have formed on a mountain since the flood occurred over 1 century later (meaning there was no water for it to form in)?Some claim the continents separated at the time of the flood. I am not sure. My educated opinion so far, is that it was at the time of the split. Over a century later.

Dolomite formation in the seawater−freshwater interfaceThe processes that form it today are trivial and small. There is a lot here. Science is less than certain, no?
We are actually very certain. Dolomite can actually form in various aquatic scenarios.
And the same language is used when the earth "brings forth animals". Would that suggest animals were planted by God? Why would the same language suddenly have different meanings?Right, and Eden was in the earth. Notice also that it doesn't seem to be magically appearing here. Planted would fit this best! Because like a garden, it brings forth stuff! back then, it brang forth awful fast.
No, Gen 2 is not an order. It is a fleshing out of some things already done. By chap 2 all was done already.
So these verses do not imply a different order?
15 Then the LORD God took the man and put him in the garden of Eden to tend and keep it. 16 And the LORD God commanded the man, saying, Of every tree of the garden you may freely eat; 17 but of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil you shall not eat, for in the day that you eat of it you shall surely die.
18 And the LORD God said, It is not good that man should be alone; I will make him a helper comparable to him. 19 Out of the ground the LORD God formed every beast of the field and every bird of the air, and brought them to Adam to see what he would call them. And whatever Adam called each living creature, that was its name. 20 So Adam gave names to all cattle, to the birds of the air, and to every beast of the field. But for Adam there was not found a helper comparable to him. Genesis 2:15-20
This clearly says God created all of the animals after he created Adam. That little red word clearly shows these events happened in the same time frame. Secondly, why wasn't the creation of the animals in Chapter 2 mentioned before God made Adam? What will you say now?
Genesis 1 never mentions the Garden of Eden. One can also imply that the events in Genesis 2 were the specific events of day 6.Not IF we already know the order. It can only imply that in the head of one that looks to chap 2 for the order. No can do.
Since when did the direction of the Garden mean "in advance of"? Does that mean westward now means "after"?Some also take the word interpreted as eastward to mean 'in advance of'.
Why? He couldn't have created Adam, planted the garden, then put Adam in it?That also makes sense, because God had the garden there before man was made, obviously. He made man somewhere else, as you may know. Then He brought man to Eden.
You've heard it here first, brought to you by BananaSlug. Dad has just admitted that something was impossible for God! In a past where anything could happen, where our current laws did not apply, dad has admitted something was impossible for God to do.Impossible to make the garden after He brought guests to it! Elementary.
How do you know such a thing would be "impossible" since even you don't know how the physical laws of the past existed?
You keep thinking that.This stuff is so easy.
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