Okay, so this is at least a valid argument in that the conclusion follows the premises. denying the consequent. But my question is, per your premise, why would we expect to see the term greater light again, if indeed it was the sun?
I could turn around and make the argument, if the greater light was not the sun, we would expect it to be mentioned again somewhere in scripture where it talks about the pre-flood world. But we don't see that. Therefore it must have merely been the sun.
Is that a valid argument? Yes! It's a good argument. Only if I can support my premise. I haven't yet seen a good argument for your premise.
I would point out that if there was really a different type of light that was grouped with the stars, that no longer exists today, there would be some mention of it is scripture, particularly explaining why it was destroyed.
Also, by definition, the sun is a greater light to us which rules the day, and the moon a lesser light to us which rules the night. So they fit the description perfectly. And they are grouped with the stars everywhere else in scripture.
Furthermore, I think the stars are the key. If there was some kind of vapor canopy (which I kind of reject at this point), the stars would not have been visible yet. So why mention them? But since it does, why not also mention making the sun and moon in addition to the greater and lesser light? Seems odd if that were really the case.
Of course you are correct in saying that this proof is only as strong as the chance that the word for greater light would be used again.
There are very few passages about the pre flood condition so it should not be expected that something this specific should be mentioned. The point was that the sun was a part of everyday life while Bible events were unfolding so it would seem that the term greater light would have been used for the sun if it really was the sun.
If you go by the text of Genesis, the highest heaven is further out than the stars. What else could the author have meant? It's the highest! The ancients did not know how far away the stars were, but they knew they were higher than the clouds, which they knew were the source of rain. This is easily inferred by the naked eye. And the stars are visible to the naked eye, so it's at least fair to say the psalmist thought the waters above the heavens were way out there beyond the stars. And I don't think they associated these waters with rain or clouds. I think it was a mystery to them. In many ways it's still a mystery to us.
Well there are three heavens.
The sky in Gen 1
The Cosmos Deu 1:10
The third heaven is where God is 2 Cor 12:2 at least that is what Paul calls it.
Then you can describe the Sky heaven by the cloud level.
There are higher clouds and lower clouds.
I am not saying you did or did not use these definitions but the text does not assignment any of definitions once you disregard the context of diminishing elevation.
You changed the word for greater light to sun. Notice that Moses does not mention the sun.Plus I think the straightforward reading of scripture supports my premise better than it does yours. Moses said explicitly. For in six days the LORD made the heavens and the earth, the sea, and all that is in them
All that was made in the heavens was made is six days. This includes sun, moon stars.
Actually if you understand hebrew parallelism, it is. The second line in Hebrew parallelism is always complements the first. The psalmist is using hebrew poetry to say that all things no matter how high should praise the Lord. To paraphrase: The highest heavens should praise the Lord. In fact, even the waters above the heavens should praise the Lord! Now that's pretty high and that's precisely the point the psalmist is making.
I guess I am not willing to revise the text so that it says what I want it to so I will pass on this.
I'm sorry but the passage is crystal clear. There is every indication, that the passage is building upward to build on the point that all things no matter how high should praise God. Thus, even the highest heavens, even the waters that are above all the heavens.
Building up? It starts at the top and works its way down.
Actually, no you can't. You can't make it say what you tried to make it say, that the waters are below the heavens and that the passage somehow is going from higher places to lower. The opposite is true. The passages is building from high to highest and then to even above highest. It's beautiful poetry.
No, absolutely not, and there's somewhat of an interesting story there, which I'll get into below. I'm merely looking at the passage in its literal context, understanding how hebrew poetry works.
So the creatures in the deep are above the waters and the highest heavens?
Actually no, and here's the interesting story. I was researching the issue of the flood and vapor canopy. Many creationists were rejecting the canopy theory, and I wanted out find out why. I came across this passage doing a word search for 'heavens' and 'waters' mainly because I was trying to understand Gen. 1:6. Bingo, there it was! When I first looked at this passage I had a view closer to yours, and older flood models, though I wasn't a gap theorist anymore at that point. But I did hold to the Henry Morris flood vapor canopy model. This passage forced me out of that view, because it explicitly says the waters were above the highest heavens, and more importantly still up there. I didn't want to accept what it said, because it made things very difficult me. But I also wanted to accept scripture at face value, and allow it to drive my theories. Thus, I'm where I'm at today.
Well you have reasons for your opinion. I am definitely not an expert on poetry so I think I will stick to keeping things in context.
What did you think about the proof that that the stars and space existed before the first day in Gen 1: 1 & 2 ?
Duordi
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