Why, when Thayer's has the definition of "genea" in Matthew 24:34 as meaning generation, and NOT solely race?
"3.
the whole multitude of men living at the same time: Matthew 24:34; Mark 13:30;
Luke 1:48 (πᾶσαι αἱ γενεαί); ;
Philippians 2:15;
used especially of the Jewish race living at one and the same period:
Matthew 11:16;
Matthew 12:39, 41f, 45;
Matthew 16:4;
Matthew 23:36;
Mark 8:12, 38;
Luke 11:29f, 32, 50;
Luke 17:25;
Acts 13:36;
Hebrews 3:10; ἄνθρωποι τῆς γενεάς ταύτης,
Luke 7:31; ἄνδρες τῆς γενεάς ταύτης,
Luke 11:31; τήν δέ γενεάν αὐτοῦ τίς διηγήσεται, who can describe the wickedness of the present generation,
Acts 8:33 (from
Isaiah 53:8 the Sept.) (but cf. Meyer, at the passage)."
I have selectively quoted the section of the Thayer's that provides the definition of genea in Matthew 24:34. Why would I provide the other meanings that don't contain matthew 24:34?
Does 1, 2, 2a, or 2b provide matthew 24:34 as an example for genea being used in a different sense than "generation"?
Let's take a look here:
Number 1 doesn't.
1. a begetting, birth, nativity: Herodotus 3, 33; Xenophon, Cyril 1, 2, 8, etc.; (others make the collective sense the primary significance, see Curtius as above).
For example, Herodotus uses it to mean "birth" or "hereditary".
"Such were Cambyses' mad acts to his own household, whether they were done because of Apis or grew from some of the many troubles that are wont to beset men; for indeed he is said to have been afflicted from his
birth with that grievous disease which some call "sacred."
16 It is no unlikely thing p45 then that when his body was grievously afflicted his mind too should be diseased." Herodotus 3, 33.
Number 2 doesn't. Here we see genea can mean men of same stock (family relation), such as a generation like in Matthew 1:17, where there were 14 generations from David to Jesus (2a), and/or men of same metaphorical stock such as a wicked generation (2b). This does not mean the same as "genos".
passively, that which has been begotten, men of the same stock, a family;
a. properly, as early as Homer; equivalent to מִשְׁפָּחַה,
Genesis 31:3, etc. σῴζειν Ρ᾽αχαβην καί τήν γενεάν αὐτῆς, Josephus, Antiquities 5, 1, 5. the several ranks in a natural descent, the successive members of a genealogy:
Matthew 1:17 (ἑβδόμῃ γενεά οὗτος ἐστιν ἀπό τοῦ πρώτου, Philo, vit. Moys. i. § 2).
b. metaphorically, a race of men very like each other in endowments, pursuits, character; and especially in a bad sense a perverse race:
Matthew 17:17;
Mark 9:19;
Luke 9:41;
Luke 16:8; (
Acts 2:40).
However, it doesn't seem that your argument is that genea must mean generation like a family generation (14 generations from David to Jesus), nor does your argument appear to be that genea means a metaphorical wicked generation.
Your argument appears to be that genea means "race" and that genea, in the context of matthew 24:34, means the Jewish race. The only times Thayer mentions "jewish race" is in point number 3 " used especially of the Jewish race living at one and the same period" .
Your argument is really that "genos" is what is to be understood in Matthew 24:34. However, "genos" is not found in matthew 24:34, and so I disagree with your argument.
Your argument here is "genetic fallacy", as we are all bias. Your bias causes you to ignore Thayer's 3rd definition of genea, which contains matthew 24:34, because it disagrees with your position, while my bias causes me to use Thayer's 3rd defintion of genea, which contains matthew 24:34, because it agrees with my position.
Genea and Genos do not appear interchangeable as you seem to argue.
The Jews are a "genos" in that they descend from a paticular group of people, the Israelites, descending from Abraham through Jacob.
Saying the Jews are a "genea" makes less sense unless you are going to make the metaphorical argument, such as thayer's point 2b of the genea.
Subjective argument. I could say the same of futurism.
