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Eve's pains vs sorrows

brian57

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The first thing I would like to point out is the difference between a modern bible version and the KJV of what God said to eve.

NIV - To the woman he said, “I will make your pains in childbearing very severe; with painful labor you will give birth to children.

Most of us have for years believed that this meant that all women because of eve and including eve will have pain when giving birth , which btw they do anyway, but as you will see , the KJV reads differenty.

KJV - Unto the woman he said, I will greatly multiply thy sorrow and thy conception; in sorrow thou shalt bring forth children;

She gave birth to two sons [ multiple conception] and multiple sorrows were to follow. One son is murdered , the other son is the murderer and he is sent out into the wild so that Eve was never to see him again. I counted 3 sorrows but you may have counted more.

So does anyone here know why we see such a huge difference between these two bible versions , and how can we know for sure as to which is the correct scripture?

Thank you.
 
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ebedmelech

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The first thing I would like to point out is the difference between a modern bible version and the KJV of what God said to eve.

NIV - To the woman he said, “I will make your pains in childbearing very severe; with painful labor you will give birth to children.

Most of us have for years believed that this meant that all women because of eve and including eve will have pain when giving birth , which btw they do anyway, but as you will see , the KJV reads differenty.

KJV - Unto the woman he said, I will greatly multiply thy sorrow and thy conception; in sorrow thou shalt bring forth children;

She gave birth to two sons [ multiple conception] and multiple sorrows were to follow. One son is murdered , the other son is the murderer and he is sent out into the wild so that Eve was never to see him again. I counted 3 sorrows but you may have counted more.

So does anyone here know why we see such a huge difference between these two bible versions , and how can we know for sure as to which is the correct scripture?

Thank you.
I don't see the huge difference. The simple point is that women would suffer pain in childbirth as a result of Eve's sin.

You must realize the change in word meaning over time. The KJV isn't saying anything different from the NIV.

Do the word study using a dictionary/concordance and you'll understand.

"Sorrow" as used in the KJV is simply "labour" ...it's not "sorrow" as we understand it today.

Sorrow is the Hebrew word "itstsabown", this is what it means via Blue Letter Bible using the KJV:
Blue Letter Bible - Lexicon :: H6093

It refers to "labour"...so there's no "huge difference". This is why we have modern translations, they acknowledge the change of word meaning.

Every one of these translations are correct if you acknowledge the words properly...where your mistake is...is how you understand the word "sorrow":

Genesis 3:16
KJV:
16 Unto the woman he said, I will greatly multiply thy sorrow and thy conception; in sorrow thou shalt bring forth children; and thy desire shall be to thy husband, and he shall rule over thee.

NIV:
16 To the woman he said,“I will make your pains in childbearing very severe; with painful labor you will give birth to children. Your desire will be for your husband, and he will rule over you.”

NASB:
16 To the woman He said, “I will greatly multiply Your pain in childbirth, In pain you will bring forth children; Yet your desire will be for your husband, And he will rule over you.”

Every one of those are good translations of the passage...:thumbsup:
 
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DamianWarS

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brian57 said:
The first thing I would like to point out is the difference between a modern bible version and the KJV of what God said to eve.

NIV - To the woman he said, "I will make your pains in childbearing very severe; with painful labor you will give birth to children.

Most of us have for years believed that this meant that all women because of eve and including eve will have pain when giving birth , which btw they do anyway, but as you will see , the KJV reads differenty.

KJV - Unto the woman he said, I will greatly multiply thy sorrow and thy conception; in sorrow thou shalt bring forth children;

She gave birth to two sons [ multiple conception] and multiple sorrows were to follow. One son is murdered , the other son is the murderer and he is sent out into the wild so that Eve was never to see him again. I counted 3 sorrows but you may have counted more.

So does anyone here know why we see such a huge difference between these two bible versions , and how can we know for sure as to which is the correct scripture?

Thank you.

There are two hebrew words in question which the KJV translates both as "sorrow" and both are related and can be translated as like words. What is interesting is the first "sorrow" is the same word used to reference Adam's punishment where some translations say "toil" as in toiling over the land. This would seem to suggest that both man and woman received the same curse manifested differently. We both received this "sorrow" or "pain" which is contextualized uniquely to our roles and is a product of the curse. I don't see pain/sorrow.... what I see is the curse of sin.
 
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ebedmelech

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There are two hebrew words in question which the KJV translates both as "sorrow" and both are related and can be translated as like words. What is interesting is the first "sorrow" is the same word used to reference Adam's punishment where some translations say "toil" as in toiling over the land. This would seem to suggest that both man and woman received the same curse manifested differently. We both received this "sorrow" or "pain" which is contextualized uniquely to our roles and is a product of the curse. I don't see pain/sorrow.... what I see is the curse of sin.
That's correct! Adams sorrow can be translated labour too. It would be the pain of the body that comes from working.

Same pain it only comes about through different means...and it's definitely the result of the curse.
 
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