8th February 2003 at 03:05 PM Homie said this in Post #1
In the 1st chapter of the Acts Peter says that Judas Iscariot died by falling when walking in his field that he bought for the 30 silver coins, his guts spilled over the field and that is why it is known as the field of blood.
Act 1:18 Now this man purchased a field with the reward of iniquity; and falling headlong, he burst asunder in the midst, and all his bowels gushed out.
Act 1:19 And it was known unto all the dwellers at Jerusalem; insomuch as that field is called in their proper tongue, Aceldama, that is to say, The field of blood.
But in the gospel according to Mathew Judas throws the coins into the tempel because he regrets what he has done. The priests buy a farm for the money, bloodmoney, and therefore the field is called the field of blood. And Judas dies by hanging himself. What story is correct?
Hi homie,
I believe the solution to this lies in the fact that there are
two different fields.
In Matthew 27:5 we read..
"So Judas threw the money into the temple and left. Then he went away and hanged himself."
In Acts 1:18-19 however we read..
"(With the reward he got for his wickedness, Judas bought a field; there he fell headlong, his body burst open and all his intestines spilled out. Everyone in Jerusalem heard about this, so they called that field in their language Akeldama, that is, Field of Blood.)" In both the ancient greek and ancient Aramaic texts
different words are used to describe
two different fieldsIn the Aramaic and in the greek two
different words are used to describe two
different fields.
The word used in Aramaic in Matthew is "srwg" and the word used in the greek is "agros" (field).
But the word used in acts is "lgx" in Aramaic and "chorion" in the greek.How could Judas have used the thirty pieces of silver to purchase the field. The answer is he could not have. Judas was the treasurer, but also a thief. The "reward of his iniquity" that he used to purchase the property was money that he stole.
See ." John 12:6b - "he was a thief, and had the bag, and bare what was put therein."
IIn 1 corinthians 15:3-5 we are told...
3For what I received I passed on to you as of first importance : that Christ died for our sins according to the Scriptures, 4that he was buried, that he was raised on the third day according to the Scriptures, 5and that he appeared to Peter, and then to the Twelve." This appearance "to the twelve" happens after Matthew 27:5. How is this so? Did Judas die twice? I do not believe so. I believe the verse in matthew does not speak of Judas's death but rather that he was "choked with grief". It would be similar to someone today "hanging their head in shame". This figurative usage of the greek word "apancho" (apanchomai) can be verified in the the writings of Aristophanes, vespae 686
For further evidence that Judas was alive
after the "hanging", compare Luke 24:33 with John 20:24.
Jesus appears to
the eleven in Luke 24:33 but in John 20:24 we find out that it was
Thomas who was absent. This means that Judas must have been there.
The entire "contradiction" is resolved by realizing that one word should be figurative. When judas "hung" himself he didn't tie a rope around his neck and kick a chair out from under himself. As far as I can tell this was not a way people killed themselves in those days (unlike today).
It appears that early greek translators saw that the greek word apanchomoai may give the impression that perhaps Judas had died, so they sought to clarify with another word.
the following texts used "apoechumi" meaning to wish a thing away.MSS 803,875,1415,1608,2521 and 2539
One maunscript used the greek word "apognigo" meaning to choke with vexation or rage.(I'll have to check which one). And MSS 827 uses the greek word "pnignalion" meaning to lead away.
As already mentioned above the classical writings of Aristophanes include usegae of the more common word "apanchomai" in a figurative sense, when we do the same
all problems vanish.
