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Eph 1:1

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JDS

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Notrash said:
Did God choose the particular word, or did men choose some of them? Why are their differences in the KJV from Tyndale? etc etc. Why does Tyndale render a word meaning assembly; "ecclesia" and the KJV renders it "church". Answer: Because the KJV was to support the institutionary church of England. This is just a minor example of the idea of subjective choices of words, how they influence peoples thinking and their presence in even the KJV translation.

I am very confused now about your position concerning the word of God. Are you telling me that God is pleased with the merchandising of his word by corrupt men and institutions and that 100 + translations and paraphrases is really his will or are you trying to convince me that only the elite who can read the original languages has any hope of ever knowing exactly what God has said to mankind and translations are of absolutely no concern to God at all?

Do you not see that this proliferation of translations in recent years is fulfilling a prophecy of the corruption of the truth and fits with the apostate attitude of the last days?

2Pe 1:19 We have also a more sure word of prophecy; whereunto ye do well that ye take heed, as unto a light that shineth in a dark place, until the day dawn, and the day star arise in your hearts:
20 Knowing this first, that no prophecy of the scripture is of any private interpretation.
21 For the prophecy came not in old time by the will of man: but holy men of God spake as they were moved by the Holy Ghost.
1 But there were false prophets also among the people, even as there shall be false teachers among you, who privily shall bring in damnable heresies, even denying the Lord that bought them, and bring upon themselves swift destruction.
2 And many shall follow their pernicious ways; by reason of whom the way of truth shall be evil spoken of.
3 And through covetousness shall they with feigned words make merchandise of you: whose judgment now of a long time lingereth not, and their damnation slumbereth not.

At this point though I am not trying to convince you to my position. I brought this up because of your comments and so you will understand where my authority lies. Obviously we differ on our authority for the Christian faith.


Notrash said:
If what your saying had any substance, the word oikonomia would have had a different word or tense or associated adjective in the Gospels as compared with in the Epistles in the original languages and not just in some of the translations. But making this emphasis, your actually putting the KJV on pedestal above the original languages.

Your conclusion is not true. I use dictionaries and lexicons to attempt to determine the mind of the Lord. I do accept that he has given words in the English language that will make me understand the revelation of his will. He said that the thoughts of God was revealed through "words" (I am reading that in the English) and therefore, the English is just as important to me as the original languages because I understand the English language and use it all the time. In the originals, I have only the definitions and have no clue of the nuances of those languages. However, though I look closely at the Hebrew or Greek word, I do not question the English words that God has chosen to translate those languages.


Notrash said:
This idea of dividing 7 as 4 and 3 with reference to oikonomia has no support in the original languages and I personally put little emphasis other than a passing consideration on its being used 7 times in the NT.

Seven dispensations complete the purposes of God in time, i e to restore through Jesus Christ all that Adam has lost through the fall and put away sin completely and totally. I have read the beginning of the Bible when all that God made was good and I have read the last two chapters and I noted that the last thing in chapter 20 was his finally and completely putting away sin by putting away sinners. This is consisitent with God's use of the number 7 in his word.

Why does the division of the number 7 have no support in the original languages and how can you dogmatically say that" You surely have not had time to study that out to see. You summarily rejected what I said about the number. I can tell you it is true whether you attach any particular significance to it or not. That of course would be up to you.


Notrash said:
Again, not all translations translate it 'dispensation", but some translate it "administration'.

One then needs to find a 1550 Websters and other English dictionaries to determine the meaning of the word 'dispensation' as the English translators intended it's readers to understand. Most importantly, one needs to find a koinia greek dictionary from about 50 bc to 50 AD to obtain the correct translation of 'oikonomia'.

I am thinking this a pretty silly statement. Think this through. If God was in no way involved in translation, the case you seem to be making, then I would agree with you that he would not be able to teach us spiritual truths based on those words alone but would of necessity direct us to the original languages. This would either leave many of us with no way to be sure of the truth or make us dependent upon those very few who have ability to read Hebrew and Greek to teach us. This is the trail back to popery.



Notrash said:
Most people, including many Christians, are unfamiliar with the application of the word economy in relation to God. Economy is the anglicized form of the Greek word oikonomia, which occurs throughout the New Testament (1 Timothy 1:4; Ephesians 1:10; 3:2; 3:9; 1 Corinthians 9:17; Colossians 1:25). Oikonomia is a compound of two nouns:
oikos, which means house, and nomos, which means law.
Hence, economy denotes a household administration, management, or arrangement.
More generally, an economy is a plan to carry out a certain purpose. Webster’s New Collegiate Dictionary offers the following definition of economy:
6. Theol. a. The Creator’s plan;
the design of Providence. (emphases added)
God is like an immensely wealthy householder who desires to dispense His unsearchable riches (Ephesians 3:8) to all of His people, the members of His household. However, to accomplish this enormous task He needs a plan, an arrangement, an economy.
[/quote]



Yes, this is true. This is how the NT is expressed. Jesus Christ is the householder. That is, he is the head of the household. The church is the house. The believers are his family of which he is the firstborn son See Ro 8:29.

The house that Jesus built:
Heb 3:1 Wherefore, holy brethren, partakers of the heavenly calling, consider the Apostle and High Priest of our profession, Christ Jesus; 2 Who was faithful to him that appointed him, as also Moses was faithful in all his house.
3 For this man was counted worthy of more glory than Moses, inasmuch as he who hath builded the house hath more honour than the house.
4 For every house is builded by some man; but he that built all things is God.
5 And Moses verily was faithful in all his house, as a servant, for a testimony of those things which were to be spoken after;
6 But Christ as a son over his own house; whose house are we, if we hold fast the confidence and the rejoicing of the hope firm unto the end.

The family:
Eph 2:19 Now therefore ye are no more strangers and foreigners, but fellowcitizens with the saints, and of the household of God;
 
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Notrash

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Why does the division of the number 7 have no support in the original languages and how can you dogmatically say that"

The division of 7 as 4 and 3 has no support in the original languages. It could just as easlily be divided as 3, 1,2,1; refering to the number of times it appears in various books of the bible.
 
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JDS

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Notrash said:
In your above statement, you refer to Eph 3:5 which reads.

Which in other ages was not made known unto the sons of men, as it is now revealed unto his holy apostles and prophets by the Spirit;

The preceeding verse states this.
Eph 3:4 Whereby, when ye read, ye may understand my knowledge in the mystery of Christ)

The mystery of Christ is the church composed of Jews and gentile believers. The salvation of gentiles was no secret in the OT, neither was the salvation of Jews. However, their inclusion in one body with the indwelling Holy Spirit and their being made the children of God in Christ was hidden in the OT types and was revealed to the apostles and prophets because it could not be learned from study.




Notrash said:
The 'mystery' of salvation and promises in Christ woudl be available to people of all nations and a undivided body of Christ was also given to Paul directly through revelation and directly from Jesus Christ and the Holy Spirit, just as it was given to the other disciples in Luke above.

Some dispy's inply that this was a message that Paul was the first to understand or even that he was the only one to understand it.

I believe what the Scriptures state. That is that the apostles and prophets received the revelation of the mystery so why would I doubt it or try to confuse what is said. However a study of the ministries of the apostles and prophets will reveal that there was probably a difference in the extent of the revelation given between the apostles and the prophets. I state this instance of the prophets ministry.

1Co 14:29 Let the prophets speak two or three, and let the other judge. 30 If any thing be revealed to another (prophet) that sitteth by, let the first (prophet) hold his peace. 31 For ye may all prophesy one by one, that all may learn, and all may be comforted. 32 And the spirits of the prophets are subject to the prophets.

Now this is a historical example of the ministry of the prophet in the primitive church during the apostolic age and is instructive. There are several other instances of their ministry recorded in Scripture.

Whether the apostles were so limited and the revelation came all at once or was incremental, I can not be sure, but I suspect it was incremental and not all at once for the 12. In Paul's case, I do not think it was but it was given to him in a short period of time.
Peter had to be prepared to take the message to the gentiles in Acts 10 with a heavenly vision, something that would not be needed if he fully understood that God was going to include the gentiles in his church. Paul, OTOH said that the mystery had been revealed to him and in 1 Co says he understands all mysteries.

Here are some things Paul said about his own ministry:

Romans 11:13 For I speak to you Gentiles, inasmuch as I am the apostle of the Gentiles, I magnify mine office:

1 Timothy 2:7 Whereunto I am ordained a preacher, and an apostle, (I speak the truth in Christ, and lie not;) a teacher of the Gentiles in faith and verity.

2 Timothy 1:11Whereunto I am appointed a preacher, and an apostle, and a teacher of the Gentiles.

Romans 15:16 That I should be the minister of Jesus Christ to the Gentiles, ministering the gospel of God, that the offering up of the Gentiles might be acceptable, being sanctified by the Holy Ghost.

Romans 15:18 For I will not dare to speak of any of those things which Christ hath not wrought by me, to make the Gentiles obedient, by word and deed,

Acts 22:21 And he said unto me, Depart: for I will send thee far hence unto the Gentiles.

Acts 26:17-18 Delivering thee from the people, and from the Gentiles, unto whom now I send thee, to open their eyes, and to turn them from darkness to light, and from the power of Satan unto God, that they may receive forgiveness of sins, and inheritance among them which are sanctified by faith that is in me. (Note: the term “the people” always, 100% of the time, refers to Israel in the NT)
Ephesians 3:8 Unto me, who am less than the least of all saints, is this grace given, that I should preach among the Gentiles the unsearchable riches of Christ;

Galatians 1:16 To reveal his Son in me, that I might preach him among the heathen; immediately I conferred not with flesh and blood:

Galatians 2:2 And I went up by revelation, and communicated unto them (the other Apostles) that gospel which I preach among the Gentiles, but privately to them which were of reputation, lest by any means I should run, or had run, in vain.

Galatians 2:7-9 But contrariwise, when they saw that the gospel of the uncircumcision was committed unto me, as the gospel of the circumcision was unto Peter; (For he that wrought effectually in Peter to the apostleship of the circumcision, the same was mighty in me toward the Gentiles:) And when James, Cephas, and John, who seemed to be pillars, perceived the grace that was given unto me, they gave to me and Barnabas the right hands of fellowship; that we should go unto the heathen, and they unto the circumcision.

Ephesians 3:1-12 ¶ For this cause I Paul, the prisoner of Jesus Christ for you Gentiles, If ye have heard of the dispensation of the grace of God which is given me to you-ward: How that by revelation he made known unto me the mystery; (as I wrote afore in few words, Whereby, when ye read, ye may understand my knowledge in the mystery of Christ) Which in other ages was not made known unto the sons of men, as it is now revealed unto his holy apostles and prophets by the Spirit; That the Gentiles should be fellowheirs, and of the same body, and partakers of his promise in Christ by the gospel (Note: This is a clear statement of what that mystery is!). Whereof I was made a minister, according to the gift of the grace of God given unto me by the effectual working of his power. Unto me, who am less than the least of all saints, is this grace given, that I should preach among the Gentiles the unsearchable riches of Christ; And to make all men see what is the fellowship of the mystery, (Note: The fellowship of the mystery is that both Jews and Gentiles would be one in this one body) which from the beginning of the world hath been hid in God, who created all things by Jesus Christ: To the intent that now unto the principalities and powers in heavenly places might be known by the church the manifold wisdom of God, According to the eternal purpose which he purposed in Christ Jesus our Lord: In whom we have boldness and access with confidence by the faith of him.

A summary:
1. His office as an Apostle is to the Gentiles Rom. 11:13
2. He is a preacher, an Apostle, and a teacher of the Gentiles by ordination 1 Tim. 2:7
3. He is a preacher, an Apostle, and a teacher of the Gentiles by appointment 2 Tim. 1:11
4. His ministry is to make the gentiles obedient in word and deed Rom. 15:18
5. His purpose is to make the gentiles offering up acceptable to God and Spirit led Rom. 15:16
6. His ministry was chiefly to the nations while the other Apostles ministry was to the Jews. Galatians 2:7-9

Note:
According to 2 Tim 3:16 All Scripture is given by inspiration of God and is profitable for 4 things:
1. For Doctrine
2. For Reproof
3. For Correction
4. For Instruction in righteousness

These 4 things serve to make the man of God mature in the faith. However, while all Scripture in the Bible is profitable for me, all Scripture in the Bible is not written to me. Surely God will not judge me concerning partaking of the fruit of the Tree of the Knowledge of Good and Evil as he did Adam in the garden or he will not hold me accountable for keeping any of the OT Feasts or offering any of the OT sacrifices as he did Moses in the Pentateuch because none of those things were written and addressed to me. Although those things were not addressed to me, I can still establish Biblical doctrine from them, I can be reproved by them, I can surely be corrected and instructing through them but to apply the specific instruction such as those named above is to confuse the design of those directives.
What then? If those things are not instructions for me to practice, is there anything in the Bible that is written directly to me? Now I live in the year 2004 according to the calendar. I am not of Jewish descent. I am a gentile and according to the Bible I live during the time that is called “the dispensation of the grace of God”. Another term we use for this time period is “the Church age. It is the time God is calling out from among the gentiles a people for his name and immersing them, along with the individual Jew who believes the Gospel of Christ, into Christ body that he is forming during this age, which he calls the Church, which simply means “a called out assembly”. This is the mystery being revealed here by Paul in Ephesians!
Now, as a gentile, I have a record from the Bible that God has raised up a man and sent him to speak to the gentiles of which I am a member. That means I have specific directions and instructions as how to please God. I hastily add that I did not make this up. Paul said he was sent to the Gentiles for the purpose of making the gentiles obedient in word and deed. He said the other Apostles were sent to the circumcision (Jews) but he was sent to the uncircumcised (Gentiles). Now he has written thirteen letters to gentiles, instructing us, warning us, admonishing us in all areas of Godliness that we might know how we aught to walk and please God. Nothing that is profitable to us has been left out. All subjects have been covered in these letters.
Now for me to go to books or letters or passages in the Bible that were addressed to someone else and try to apply those specific instructions to myself is to confuse the Bible and open myself up to error.
It is always a good thing when studying the Bible to take note of who is being addressed. For instance, we know most of the OT prophets were sent to Israel, the nation. This nation was governed during this time under the Mosaic Law. It would be foolish for me to fail to take note of that fact and consider it before applying to myself what has been said to them. Are we not careful to consider these facts in our everyday life?
When we go to the mailbox and get letters out of it, do we not look at the addressee before we open it and make sure it gets to the right person? Can we not be instructed and can we not learn from someone else’s letters while at the same time understanding that we are not to follow specific instructions that may be in that letter since they were addressed to someone else? Why do these rules apply everywhere without confusion but when it comes to God’s word we can’t seem to figure it out?
 
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Notrash

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I am very confused now about your position concerning the word of God. Are you telling me that God is pleased with the merchandising of his word by corrupt men and institutions and that 100 + translations and paraphrases is really his will or are you trying to convince me that only the elite who can read the original languages has any hope of ever knowing exactly what God has said to mankind and translations are of absolutely no concern to God at all?

In addition, you mistake my position concerning the new translations. I believe that God's Spirit will speak to those he calls through whatever remnant of His word remains in the modern translations. He can and does save through many of the various 'new' translations.

Their fault, I believe is in their choice of original documents, and/or in a thought for thought translation rather than word for word translation.

I believe also that the Holy Spirit will draw most people whom he calls away from those thought for thought versions and into a word for word translation for their serious study of Scripture. It's my experience that those involved in serious study will also hold the KJV in high esteem, but will also compare the original languages for it's 'nuances' as you call them.

This is where what I mentioned about the Scofield bible using the Hort/Westcot text comes in. Although Scofield originally used the KJV, many of the footnotes in the new testament follow the renderings of the Hort/Westcott texts. Such as... earliest manuscripsts omit the word _____. Almost all of the new translations use the Hort/Westcott and/or the Nestle greek new testaments which are based from the Alexandrian manuscripts. The KJV uses what is known as the textus receptus, Erasmus' text or the Majority text.

Other newer versions use new testament texts (hort/westcot or Nestle) that have been formed from a process known as higher criticism in which other manuscripts which were once unknown or considered unreliable are allowed to have influence particularly if they of greater antiquity. Such is many of the Alexandrian texts and partial texts.

However, I don't hold that every word chosen by the KJV translators was chosen by God as the absolute correct and only translation in the English language that was/is reliable. The KJV is as mentioned before a revision of the Great Bible, the Geneva Bible, the Bishops Bible and Tyndales works. These also used the textus receptus and were compiled without the political influence of King James or the Church of England.

The KJV New Testament is reckoned to be nearly 90% Tyndale, with about one-third being verbatim Tyndale.

Just as Tyndale translated ekklesia as congregation rather than 'church' perhaps out of a antagonism towards the Catholic church, so also King James instructed the translators to keep the ecclesiastical words out of support of the church of England's position of a hierarchical church structure.

Thus as you mentioned about only relying on greek/hebrew texts and translations being a reversion to popery, so also the KJV was a bible that supported hierarchical leadership and authority. For some people with 6th to 8th grade reading skills, insisting on the KJV as the only bible also creates a restoration of popery as those who fill pulpits interpret and expound the scriptures for those either unable or unwilling to read the KJV for themselves.

I feel that parts of the angles of dispensationalism reflects a hierarchical church leadership

Concerning the predominance of the KJV, it wasn't through popular choice of the laypeople in England that the KJV came to dominance. After the KJV was published, the printing of the Geneva bible and other bibles was disallowed. Englanders who wanted the bishops or the Geneva bible could still get it published and imported. But soon after a tarriff was imposed on bibles printed outside of England and the Geneva bible fell by the wayside. Thus Oxford and Cambridge universities secured printing rights of the KJV. It is that way today in England. Although in the U.S. the KJV is without copywrite, in England it has copywrite status.

Thus the same perspective that many have about the new translations being done simply for profit, many during the 1600's would have had the same perspective of the KJV in comparison with the Geneva bible.

It is said that the bible of the Pilgrims, the Puritans and most early settlers was the Geneva bible.

All this being said, the KJV is still along with the New king james, the NASB and the ESV, my preferences of reading. All these claim to be word for word rather than thought for thought translations. But I feel that it is more accurate to say that the words chosen by the original authors would be inspired but that the words used by the KJV translators would not be inspired, but most often (not always)accurately reflect the translation of those words.

Concerning the new translations.... some are done for profit, it is true..but as Paul says about those who in his day taught about Christ out of insincere hearts and for personal gain, Pauls attitude was that he was thankful that the word was being spread. That is my perspective of most of the new translations as long as they do not stray far from the originals; God's word will not return void, and he uses what remains accurate of his word in those translations to draw men unto himself, to teach and instruct... etc.

To summarize in relation to our present considerations, I would offer the example that the word oikominia is the inspired word, while dispensation, or other choices for translated words all carry with them a degree of interpretation of the inspired word.
 
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Notrash

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I opened this discussion on Eph 1:1 to see if there were some who felt that saints were converted jews and the faithful in Jesus Christ could be refering to converted Gentiles.

Paul, an apostle of Jesus Christ by the will of God, to the saints which are at Ephesus, and to the faithful in Christ Jesus:

Since that time I've learned that some people feel the words (which are at Ephesus) were added to the original documents. There is discussion on that issue that i won't cover here. However, it is also interesting to note that when Paul first went to Ephesus, (at least according to the Acts account) he went to the synagogues and reasoned with the Jews.

Acts 18:19. And he came to Ephesus, and left them there: but he himself entered into the synagogue, and reasoned with the Jews.

For 3 months he reasoned and expounded the scriptures in the synagogue. It does not say that there were or were not converts of the jews, but that the Spirit did many signs and wonders among them. It is likely that the church at Ephesus was like most churches a church combined of both jew and Gentile.

The reason for bringing up Eph 1:1 was/is to see if this Jew/Gentile division was thought to be a division of saint versus faithful in Christ Jesus.

That no one has supported this idea wasn't/isn't too surprising as the term 'saint' is often later associated with believers with disreguard for their genetic or spirtual heritage.

However I also desired to see if there would be a confirmation of how I read verse 1, which is the way in which BereanTodd has proposed and exegeted. That being that the phrase "the faithful in Christ' is a modifying phrase that supports and describes the 'Saints".

The term 'and' is a conjuctive word rather than an additive word. Not that there would be a large difference. But this style of attatching a modifying phrase or sentence to help describe a subject is common in the old testament of which Paul was well versed in.

I then wished to compare that conclusion with the exact same writing style in Gal 6:16 where Paul describes those who walk according to this rule (whatever that rule is determined to be; weather Gal 6:8 or 6:14,15) that those same people are 'the Israel of God' Associating this phrase with the unified church of all believers in Christ is not popular among futuristic dispys, but it seems that the linguistic style that Paul uses in Eph 1;1 is identical to Gal 6:16.
 
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JDS

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I opened this discussion on Eph 1:1 to see if there were some who felt that saints were converted jews and the faithful in Jesus Christ could be refering to converted Gentiles.

Paul, an apostle of Jesus Christ by the will of God, to the saints which are at Ephesus, and to the faithful in Christ Jesus:

Since that time I've learned that some people feel the words (which are at Ephesus) were added to the original documents. There is discussion on that issue that i won't cover here. However, it is also interesting to note that when Paul first went to Ephesus, (at least according to the Acts account) he went to the synagogues and reasoned with the Jews.

Acts 18:19. And he came to Ephesus, and left them there: but he himself entered into the synagogue, and reasoned with the Jews.

For 3 months he reasoned and expounded the scriptures in the synagogue. It does not say that there were or were not converts of the jews, but that the Spirit did many signs and wonders among them. It is likely that the church at Ephesus was like most churches a church combined of both jew and Gentile.

The reason for bringing up Eph 1:1 was/is to see if this Jew/Gentile division was thought to be a division of saint versus faithful in Christ Jesus.

That no one has supported this idea wasn't/isn't too surprising as the term 'saint' is often later associated with believers with disreguard for their genetic or spirtual heritage.

However I also desired to see if there would be a confirmation of how I read verse 1, which is the way in which BereanTodd has proposed and exegeted. That being that the phrase "the faithful in Christ' is a modifying phrase that supports and describes the 'Saints".

The term 'and' is a conjuctive word rather than an additive word. Not that there would be a large difference. But this style of attatching a modifying phrase or sentence to help describe a subject is common in the old testament of which Paul was well versed in.

I then wished to compare that conclusion with the exact same writing style in Gal 6:16 where Paul describes those who walk according to this rule (whatever that rule is determined to be; weather Gal 6:8 or 6:14,15) that those same people are 'the Israel of God' Associating this phrase with the unified church of all believers in Christ is not popular among futuristic dispys, but it seems that the linguistic style that Paul uses in Eph 1;1 is identical to Gal 6:16.
I do not think there is any doubt that there could have been Jews in the membership of the Ephesian church. A half Jew, Timothy was its pastor for a while and there is strong evidence that the apostle John was its pastor at one time as well. That does no harm to the purpose of this epistle and the doctrine that he reveals to them concerning the church of Jesus Christ. If there were gentiles and Jews in this congregation it would only strengthen the revelation by them having both Jew and gentile in a local NT body, an object lesson, if you will, an illustration of this truth right there in their midst.

Lets review the purpose of this book.

1) It is to reveal that which has been hidden in the counsel of God since the foundation of the world.
2) It is to show that the church, composed of Jew and gentile was PURPOSED by God from before the foundation of the world.
3) It is to reveal another of the mysteries of God, in this case the "mystery of Christ" which is clearly stated in Ep 3:6 and to show that God is in this age of grace giving his Holy Spirit as the "gift of God" to regenerate all those who believe the gospel of Jesus Christ and indwell them thus making them the "children" or the family of God because of his eternal presence and to show that the collective church that is drawn from both Jew and gentile is one body without earthly distinctions when complete at some point in time (Called the dispensation of the fullness of times in Ep 1:10) and whose destination is to GLORIFICATION which can only happen at the Adoption, which a comparison of Ro 8:15 with Ro 8:23 will determine for anyone is the resurrection and translation of the BODY to a body like unto Christ's glorious body thus conforming us to his image. We, the church, the family of God by virtue of the new birth, the body of Christ, are predestinated for this eventuality.

Having said that and getting back to your summation. The churches were designated in Scripture as gentile churches or Jewish churches. I posted a mountainous amount of material where Paul says that he is particlarlly the apostle to the gentiles and distinguishes his ministry from the 12 apostles to the Jews. Now here we have him writing letters making particular applications to gentiles and keeping that distinction by the use of pronouns, (which is completely ignored by most commentators), showing that God's inclusion of them was not because of covenant promise but by his grace alone.

Notrash, you are trying hard to miss the point of this epistle and fit it's message into a preconceived theological system that would be in danger of being exposed as false doctrine if you were to accept the truths Paul presents here.

Here is some truths of history relative to the gentiles before Jesus Christ died on the cross and sent his Holy Spirit to regenerate men and make them sons of God.

11 Wherefore remember, that ye being in time past Gentiles in the flesh, who are called Uncircumcision by that which is called the Circumcision in the flesh made by hands;
12 That at that time
1) ye were without Christ, being
2) aliens from the commonwealth of Israel, and
3) strangers from the covenants of promise,
4) having no hope, and
5) without God in the world:

That was not true of the Jews:

Ro 9:3 For I could wish that myself were accursed from Christ for my brethren, my kinsmen according to the flesh:
4 Who are Israelites; to whom pertaineth the adoption, and the glory, and the covenants, and the giving of the law, and the service of God, and the promises;
5 Whose are the fathers, and of whom as concerning the flesh Christ came, who is over all, God blessed for ever. Amen.

The condition of gentile NOW, IN CHRIST, that is in his family.

Eph 2:13 BUT NOW in Christ Jesus ye who sometimes were far off are made nigh by the blood of Christ.

You can deny this is a difference in the administration of God, a difference he had planned and purposed and that he has designated as the dispensation of the grace of God until eternity rolls and it will be you who will be proven to be the fool.

Proof for my point of Jewish and gentile congregations.

1Th 2:14 For ye, brethren, became followers of the churches of God which in Judaea are in Christ Jesus: for ye also have suffered like things of your own countrymen, even as they [have] of the Jews:

Ro 15:25 But now I go unto Jerusalem to minister unto the saints.
6 For it hath pleased them of Macedonia and Achaia to make a certain contribution for the poor saints which are at Jerusalem.
27 It hath pleased them verily; and their debtors they are. For if the Gentiles have been made partakers of their spiritual things, their duty is also to minister unto them in carnal things.
28 When therefore I have performed this, and have sealed to them this fruit, I will come by you into Spain.
 
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Notrash

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What then? If those things are not instructions for me to practice, is there anything in the Bible that is written directly to me? Now I live in the year 2004 according to the calendar. I am not of Jewish descent. I am a gentile and according to the Bible I live during the time that is called “the dispensation of the grace of God”.

And how do you know that you do not have some ancestor who was 'jewish'? And why would it matter? There is only one commandment that saves, Believe in God and Christ and his atonement to rememdy being our dead in sins.

You would say that it would not matter in the "present" economy, but will matter in a future economy. Is there presently 2 economies since the physical re-estblishment of pseudo-Israel??



Proof for my point of Jewish and gentile congregations.

1Th 2:14 For ye, brethren, became followers of the churches of God which in Judaea are in Christ Jesus: for ye also have suffered like things of your own countrymen, even as they [have] of the Jews:

Ro 15:25 But now I go unto Jerusalem to minister unto the saints.
6 For it hath pleased them of Macedonia and Achaia to make a certain contribution for the poor saints which are at Jerusalem.
27 It hath pleased them verily; and their debtors they are. For if the Gentiles have been made partakers of their spiritual things, their duty is also to minister unto them in carnal things.
28 When therefore I have performed this, and have sealed to them this fruit, I will come by you into Spain.

The Major difference in Jewish and Gentile churches were that the population of that area before become a church in Christ was prodominately either Jewish or Gentile population. After conversion and after Christ, there is "as Paul mentions at least 4 places... no more jew or gentile divisions in Christ. The jewish converts would begin to live apart from the ordinances and laws while the gentile converts would begin to live apart from the godless world.


The difference of Jew and Gentile before Christ is commented upon in the verses of chapter 2. The Gentiles were once far off, but have been brought near through the abolishment of the law.

Comments on Eph 2:11 & 12 while reading in context of pertinent verses.

Eph 2:1 & 2 and then 2:11 & 12.

1.And you [hath he quickened], who were dead in trespasses and sins;

2Wherein in time past ye walked according to the course of this world, according to the prince of the power of the air, the spirit that now worketh in the children of disobedience:

3

11:Wherefore remember, that ye [being] in time past Gentiles in the flesh, who are called Uncircumcision by that which is called the Circumcision in the flesh made by hands;

12:That at that time ye were without Christ, being aliens from the commonwealth of Israel, and strangers from the covenants of promise, having no hope, and without God in the world:

In the KJV, they say; being aliens etc. The wording seems to equate being an alien from the commonwealth of Israel as being without Christ, but that would indicate that being a non jew was without Christ, and being a jew was to be with Christ. We know from other writings (Rom 10) that position would be incorrect at least according to being a jew of the flesh only.

Question, Is the reason that they were 'without Christ because they were;

aliens from the (physical) commonwealth of Israel, stangers from the covenants of promise, hopeless and without God in the world.

Are those the reasons that they were without Christ? Or are those the results of being without Christ?

Is the reason they were without hope and without God in the world because they were aliens from the (physical)commonwealth of Israel, and strangers from the (knowledge about the) covenants of promise.

Or because they were without Christ(unquickened) vs 1,

They did not need to become familiar with Israel before believing in God's son. The God (creator) fearing gentiles would have been the Gentiles called unto Christ and salvation.

remember Paul has said that God forseeing that the heathen would be justified preached the gospel (the everlasting gospel) to Abraham saying, in you will all the nations of the earth be blessed.

and Paul has also said:
Now to Abraham and his seed were the promises made. He saith not, And to seeds, as of many; but as of one, And to thy seed, which is Christ.

And: And if ye [be] Christ's, then are ye Abraham's seed, and heirs according to the promise.

John 3:16. For God so loved the Jews... ooops.. world, that he gave his only begotten son that whatever jew......oops.. whosover believeth in him should not perish.


Paul includes himself (a former Jew) in the same boat as those apparent "Gentiles" with respect to being once outside of Christ and dead in sins.

verse 3. Among whom also we all had our conversation in times past in the lusts of our flesh, fulfilling the desires of the flesh and of the mind; and were by nature the children of wrath, even as others.

4. But God, who is rich in mercy, for his great love wherewith he loved us,

5. Even when we were dead in sins, hath quickened us together with Christ, (by grace ye are saved

Here Grace is closely associated with Mercy and Love poured out from God even while we (Jews) were dead in sins.
Thus GRACE is not God's inclusion of the Gentiles into his plan of salvation, but rather Grace is God's quickening and calling unto himself people to himself through faith, not by works. Gal 3:22 But the scripture hath concluded all under sin, (dead in sins) that the promise by faith of Jesus Christ might be given to them that believe.

2:6 And hath raised [us] up together, and made [us] sit together in heavenly [places] in Christ Jesus:

This verse and a reading of Eph 1:10 within the context of the entire chapter indicate to me that the "economy" of the fullness of time, has occured with the present fullness of Christ. The last few verses of chapter one support this as exposed before.

We continue:

2:14 For he is our peace, who hath made both one, and hath broken down the middle wall of partition [between us];

2:15 Having abolished in his flesh the enmity, [even] the law of commandments [contained] in ordinances; for to make in himself of twain one new man, [so] making peace;

Notice that he didnt' break down something of the Gentiles but rather he abolished the Jewish law of commandments contained in ordinances. Those who Jews who put their faith in the ordinaces were (are) also outside of saving faith. Paul mentions this in Galatians that the Law was powerless to save. Sacrifices and offering did not save either, but were a shadow of the reality of Christ confirming and verifying the Messiah.

2:16, And that he might reconcile both unto God in one body by the cross, having slain the enmity thereby:

2:17 And came and preached peace to you which were afar off, and to them that were nigh.

Notrash, you are trying hard to miss the point of this epistle and fit it's message into a preconceived theological system that would be in danger of being exposed as false doctrine if you were to accept the truths Paul presents here.

Nope, dont' have any "preconceived theological systems". And I'm trying very much to hold to the truth of the intent of the letter without being "indoctrinated' into a false preconceived or indoctrinated theological system. :thumbsup:

I believe also that part of the purpose of the Epistle to the Ephesians is to confirm, cultivate and support the ephesians salvation experience by comparing and verifying it against that of "those who first believed" and also to encourage the development of behavior and moral character in keeping with being called into God's family in Christ unto whom the unsearchable riches of Christ and all spiritual blessings are given.
You can deny this is a difference in the administration of God, a difference he had planned and purposed and that he has designated as the dispensation of the grace of God until eternity rolls and it will be you who will be proven to be the fool.
I am not trying to make anyone or prove anyone a "fool". What is it that Christ says about calling others 'fools'.?

The bold, underlined Part is the major point of disagreement. God's saving plan, his Mercy, Grace, love for man and his self glorification through creation and redemption of mankind (not just a single race) has always been.
For God so LOVED the world that he gave..... Behold, the lamb of God that TAKES AWAY THE SINS OF THE JEWS.....OOPS.. WORLD.. slain before the foundation of the world.

Eph 3:2, If ye have heard of the dispensation of the grace of God which is given me to you-ward:
As mentioned before, the economy (budgeting, stewardship, giving out, 'dispensation') of grace that was given to Paul for the gentiles was defined in the very next verse. Eph 3:3. How that by revelation he made known unto me (FROM GOD to Paul, dispensation, budgeting)the mystery;

I dont' feel that the 'mystery' and the giving of grace to Paul to understand the mystery are the same thing.
The Mystery was defined in verse 6.: That the Gentiles should be fellowheirs, and of the same body, and partakers of his promise in Christ by the gospel:

The economy of grace of God given to Paul was defined in verse 3. How that by revelation he made known unto me the Mystery.

Here's a new thought; Paul was not one of the original 12 or even among those who followed Christ. Those disciples had 'the mystery' explained to them by Christ after the resurection when He opened up their minds to understand the scriptures. Christ also commanded them at that time to take the gospel to Jerusalem, judea and the nations. Thus the original disciples had understood 'the mystery' that the gentiles would be joined in although they probably didn't fully understand how and when until Cornelius. Paul on the other hand had his mind opened to understand the mystery of jew/gentile unity during his 3 years of study after his salvation and conversion. I dont' know if it says that Jesus actually appeared to him or weather it was revealed to Paul through his study and through the enlightenment of the Holy Spirit....as Paul says....how by 'revelation'...he made known to me the mystery.

It was a Mystery to many of Israel who relied on their ordinances and the workings of God in their midsts or relied on their sacrifices and Gifts for salvation. Additionally, Jesus and John the Baptist said that God could make sons of Abraham out of stones... so dont' think that their geneological heritage could save them, which apparently many of the unelect believed.

Thus the Grace of God in Christ to the Gentiles was as much of His abolishing the law of commandments and ordinances thereby removing 'power' or religious authority from the accusing Jews leaders. They of course would have attempted to convert 'gentiles' to judaism for salvation. But here is where the Jews where wrong and their table became a snare, as confirmed by Paul in that verse often quoted. All are under faith in God through Christ.

Gal 3:8. And the scripture, foreseeing that God would justify the heathen through faith, preached before the gospel unto Abraham, [saying], In thee shall all nations be blessed.

I do not deny at all that there are differences in the Old testament time period and the new testament time period. Obviously we look back on the Cross as the fulfilled bruising of Satan of Gen 3:15 and have a much fuller understanding of Gods plan.

There is also a different ministry of Christ through the Holy Spirit that indwells believers gives Gifts for the upbuilding of the Body of Christ. Colossians says that Christ in you is the hope of Glory.

Neither do I deny that Pauls' primary assignment in ministry was to the non-jew nations, but everywhere he went, it seems that he first discoursed with the Jews. Possibly knowing that they, if they believed would also realize that salvation through the lamb slain, the seed of the woman (eve) and the seed of Abraham would be to all peoples of all nations.

However, I do differ that the "dispensation of Grace" as a time period is what is being specifically referred to in Eph 3:2. If there is a designation for this time period it might be called, the economy of the the fullness (fulfillment) of time and/or the economy abolition of the law for examples or the revelation and economy of Christ.

I am finding that it is perhaps not so much mans attempt to seperate the progressive revelation of God into ages as much as the futurist interpretation and it's re-elevation of physical Israel that I differ with.

Here's a link to a theological dictionary that describes 6 dispensations before the popularity of the futurists camps. Although the writer/editor of this dictionary may have already come into contact with the ideas 1829 was the year of reprint and it was reprinted from the last edition of the volume that came from London. Thus this Charles Buck was a preacher in the pre-darby era of London.
books
http://books.google.com/books?id=D5...ts=l_umytcFhu&sig=7xFkzpKWaQhTULpgLy8TuSq4qms

Now it's not known which parts of this theology book are original and which were abridged by the editor in 1829 in Philadelphia. I havent' been able to find much info about Rev Buck.

Quoting from the article. The dealing of God with his creatures in his providence is called a dispensation. (note the kjv word usage rather than stewarship or economy). The state of supernatural or revealed theology 'may' also be divided into 6 dispensations.
 
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JDS

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Notrash said:
The difference of Jew and Gentile before Christ is commented upon in the verses of chapter 2. The Gentiles were once far off, but have been brought near through the abolishment of the law.

Comments on Eph 2:11 & 12 while reading in context of pertinent verses.

Eph 2:1 & 2 and then 2:11 & 12.

1.And you [hath he quickened], who were dead in trespasses and sins;

2Wherein in time past ye walked according to the course of this world, according to the prince of the power of the air, the spirit that now worketh in the children of disobedience:

3

11:Wherefore remember, that ye [being] in time past Gentiles in the flesh, who are called Uncircumcision by that which is called the Circumcision in the flesh made by hands;

12:That at that time ye were without Christ, being aliens from the commonwealth of Israel, and strangers from the covenants of promise, having no hope, and without God in the world:

In the KJV, they say; being aliens etc. The wording seems to equate being an alien from the commonwealth of Israel as being without Christ, but that would indicate that being a non jew was without Christ, and being a jew was to be with Christ. We know from other writings (Rom 10) that position would be incorrect at least according to being a jew of the flesh only.

Question, Is the reason that they were 'without Christ because they were;

aliens from the (physical) commonwealth of Israel, stangers from the covenants of promise, hopeless and without God in the world. Are those the reasons that they were without Christ? Or are those the results of being without Christ?

Is the reason they were without hope and without God in the world because they were without Christ(unquickened) vs 1,

or was it because they were aliens from the (physical)commonwealth of Israel, and strangers from the (knowledge about the) covenants of promise.

remember Paul has said that God forseeing that the heathen would be justified preached the gospel (the everlasting gospel) to Abraham saying, in you will all the nations of the earth be blessed.

and Paul has also said:
Now to Abraham and his seed were the promises made. He saith not, And to seeds, as of many; but as of one, And to thy seed, which is Christ.

And: And if ye [be] Christ's, then are ye Abraham's seed, and heirs according to the promise.

John 3:16. For God so loved the Jews... ooops.. world, that he gave his only begotten son that whatever jew......oops.. whosover believeth in him should not perish.


This will be the only point I will address in this post because this is really where the anti dispensationalists error really lies.

The point of Ephesians is to make known the method of God in blessing all the families of the earth through Christ. It was predetermined by God. It would be "in Christ"! To be in Christ is explained in this epistle as being in his family. It is to be in his body. It could not be explained before it actually occurred. We are given to understand it unfolded in two stages beginning and predicated upon the resurrection of Jesus Christ. It was after the institution of the NEW COVENANT and was based upon new covenant promises. The promises given in the new covenant were given to Israel and not to anyone else. You may read about it in Je and Ez and Is and see if I am telling you the truth.
The spiritual blessings of the New Covenant were two-fold. They promised the indwelling Holy Spirit and the forgiveness of sins. It would not have been possible for Jew or gentile to have either if Jesus had not died for our sins, so then, the Spirit is said to be THE GIFT of God to as many as God in his grace would offer him based upon their repentance and their faith that what God said he would do he is able also to deliver.
The historical record of Acts shows that God at first offered the Holy Spirit and forgiveness of sins to his people, Israel, according to those covenant promises he had made to them centuries before and he demonstrated that by Peter's quoting prophecies of the Spirit from Joel in the OT. He was fulfilling the promise of the Spirit to them. Later, when he would pour out the Spirit in such abundance upon the gentiles in Acts 10 so that every gentile on earth could have opportunity to receive him when Christ was preached to them, did not have any OT verses quoted to them nor any previous promises from the OT because the Spirit was not directly promised to us anywhere. To give him to us was a matter of the pure grace of God and will help us to understand better the language of Ep 2:10 where we are told the gentiles during the time of the Law of Moses were without hope and without Christ. Hope must be based upon something that is anticipated through a promise. There were no covenants with gentiles so therefore there was no hope. How could God promise us anything when we were scattered all over the world?
Biblical history will show that God saved the Jews and gave them the Holy Spirit first and made them responsible for evangelizing the world with the gospel of Jesus Christ.

Mr 16:15 And he said unto them, Go ye into all the world, and preach the gospel to every creature.

Paul tells us that this mission was accomplished sometimes before he wrote Colossians in AD 60 (and Ephesians in the same year).

Col 1:23 If ye continue in the faith grounded and settled, and [be] not moved away from the hope of the gospel, which ye have heard, [and] which was preached to every creature which is under heaven; whereof I Paul am made a minister;

Now, the problem I see that ALL you anti dispensationalists have is that you put no emphasis on the greatest events of history thus far. That is firstly, the coming and the subsequent death, burial, and resurrection of Jesus Christ and secondly, his sending his Holy Spirit in the world to regenerate men. This is what the NT is all about! This the grace of God because it is THE gift of God to men. The NT is not about election of some men but about God desiring the salvation of ALL men. The Spirit of God is here presently and has been here since Acts 2 and he will regenerate all who believe in Jesus Christ and make them a child of God by his eternal indwelling presence. This did not happen to any man in the OT and it will not happen to any gentile after this ministry of the Holy Spirit is completed and he leaves this earth with the church he has been busy forming these 2000 years, thus leaving the world without light until the physical return of Jesus, who is the light of the world, seven years later.

Adam was a trinitarian man, body, soul and Spirit. God had breathed into his nostrils the breath of life, a term and type of the Holy Spirit. Adam is said to have died spiritually when he sinned which means that the Spirit was no longer present with him. Separation is the biblical definition of death. Adam was no longer in the image of God and when his son, Seth, was born it is said that he was made in the likeness of Adam and after HIS image.

Ge 5:3 And Adam lived an hundred and thirty years, and begat [a son] in his own likeness, after his image; and called his name Seth:

Since then we have all been in the image of Adam but the NT is replete with references of how we are predestinated to have that image of God restored by being made in the image of Christ. It is probably true that before the fall Adam had a glorified body and that is all that we as believers possessing the Holy Spirit of God lack in being in the image of Christ.

Ro 8:29 For whom he did foreknow, he also did predestinate [to be] conformed to the IMAGE of his Son, that he might be the firstborn among many brethren.

1Co 15:49 And as we have borne the image of the earthy, we shall also bear the image of the heavenly.

2Co 3:18 But we all, with open face beholding as in a glass the glory of the Lord, are changed into the same image from glory to glory, [even] as by the Spirit of the Lord.

Col 1:15 Who is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of every creature:

Col 3:10 And have put on the new [man], which is renewed in knowledge after the image of him that created him:

It is instructive that the very first thing Jesus did for his diciples after the resurrection was the same thing he diid when he formed Adam from the dust. He breathed the Spirit into them.

Joh 20:22 And when he had said this, he breathed on [them], and saith unto them, Receive ye the Holy Ghost:

From that point on, the concern of God is that men receive the Holy Spirit and be born again. This is the message of the NT church. This is what is important. This is different than the OT Law of Moses. It is a different administration of God. Grace is being poured out to all men. God is sending the church to the whole world. It is his special time of grace to all men. It is called the dispensation of the grace of God. This is the greatest priviledge of history, to be a member of the church of Jesus Christ. Don't miss this. Ephesians explains this as the purpose of God for this age.

Joh 1:12 But as many as received him, to them gave he power to become the sons of God, [even] to them that believe on his name: 13 Which were born, not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God.

Which were born again of the Spirit of God.

If a man is born by the will of his parents, of blood, he will be flesh and in the family of man but if he is born of the Spirit, he will be a Son of God and in God's family.
 
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Terral

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Hi Notrash:

Notrash >> Eph 1:1. Been thinking about JdS's emphasis on pronoun usage in Eph and to try to see if there is any basis for focusing on their use.

In Eph 1:1 we read, Paul, an apostle of Jesus Christ by the will of God, to “the saints which are at Ephesus,” and to “the faithful in Christ Jesus:”

Notrash Commentary >> I guess I'm wondering if some dispy's would see this as a the saints being Jewish converts and the faithful in Jesus Christ as being 'gentile' converts. ? Or is Paul using the word "and to" to modify and describe the "saints at Ephesus"??? Wondering about what Dispy's have been taught?
While this seems a minuscule point for becoming the focus of this debate, we can use this opportunity for gathering a better perspective on the Dispensational aspects of ALL the Pauline Epistles written to the members of the “Body of Christ” (Eph. 4:12). BereanTodd did a good job of pointing out that the term “faithful” (pistos # 4103) is indeed an adjective like the word ‘saints’ (hagios #40) commonly used in the phrase “Holy Spirit” (Matt. 1:18, 20, 3:11, etc..). Reading the opening verse of Paul’s Epistle to the Ephesians in English makes one think both the ‘faithful’ and ‘saints’ are nouns, when in fact Paul is using these adjectives to describe saints “who are at” (the ones being at) Ephesus and “who are” saints in Christ Jesus. The subject of those ‘being’ holy and faithful is located in the present participle (on #5607) conveying the notion of ‘being’ signifying “those present” at Ephesus. However, trisecting the Greek down to the bare bones is not going to create a Jewish and Gentile audience within this particular body of believers, which we can determine is ‘Gentile dominant’ by Paul’s use of terms elsewhere in the Epistle.

We can recognize the Jewish/Gentile audience in Paul’s Epistles to the Romans, Corinthians and Galatians by the way he quotes Old Testament Scripture making many references to Mosaic “Law.” After all, Paul begins saying “as it is written” to the Romans in verse 17 of the very first chapter and again in Romans 2:24, Romans 3:10, 4:17 and so forth indicating that a Jewish element is present among his Roman reading audience. Paul quotes OT Scripture to the Corinthians twice in the first chapter of the First Epistle (1Cor. 1:19, 31) the same way he does to the Galatians (Gal. 3:10, 13, 4:27) indicating a Jewish contingent. However, Paul never says “as it is written” to the Ephesians, Philippians, Colossians or Thessalonians even once, because these congregations were indeed “Gentile Dominant” with apparently no Jewish members at all. In fact, beyond the single mention of “the law of commandments in ordinances” (Eph. 2:15), Paul never mentions “The Law” again to these Ephesians and never mentions the concept at all to the Colossians even once. Paul actually excludes the Jewish component in this Ephesians Epistle, saying,

“For this reason I, Paul, the prisoner of Christ Jesus for the sake of you Gentiles -- if indeed you have heard of the Dispensation of God's Grace which was given to me for you; that by revelation there was made known 'to me' The Mystery, as I wrote before in brief [Eph. 1:9-10].” Ephesians 3:1-3.
The concept of “Israel” is mentioned only twice in the third person (Eph. 2:12, Phil. 3:5) in these Prison Epistles to the Ephesians, Philippians and Colossians where doctrinal precepts teaching “The Mystery” (Eph. 3:3, Col. 1:26) are just ‘now’ being ‘revealed.’ These Prison Epistles are tied to 62 AD and a time ‘after’ the close of Acts where Scripture says, “Therefore let it be known to you that this salvation of God has been sent to THE GENTILES; they will also listen,” (Acts 28:28) representing the charter verse for our resident Hyper Dispensationalists denoting Paul excluding Israel to go specifically to “you Gentiles.” In other words, the time for God’s Living Word to become “perfect/mature/complete” (1Cor. 13:10) had come AND Paul was going about the business of ‘revealing’ these things (2Peter 3:14-16) that were previously “Hidden In God” (Eph. 3:9) to these Gentile Dominant Churches thereby making Israel “Jealous” (Deut. 32:21, Romans 10:19, 11:11) in the process. Half of Paul’s use of the term “musterion” (Mystery) appear in his Epistles to the Ephesians (6) and the Colossians (4) to describe these things ‘now’ being ‘revealed’ concerning the mystery ‘my gospel’ (Eph. 6:19 = Rom. 16:25 added ‘after’ the close of Acts), our mystery is great church (Eph. 3:5-6, 5:30-32) and the administration of the Mystery (Eph. 1:9-10, 3:8-11) Hidden IN God since before the foundation of the universe (Eph. 1:4). This is a good place to consider the absolute truth that ONLY Paul makes mention of “Christ Jesus” (F+S+HS) as the “one Mediator” standing “BETWEEN God and men” (1Tim. 2:5) representing the Father (spirit witness), Son (blood witness = soul) and Holy Spirit (water witness Helper = body) as a triune ‘Man’ INTO WHOM Jesus Christ Himself has been seated AND every believer in our gospel WITH HIM. Read these words very slowly again to gather the substance of Paul’s very important and revealing teaching:

“But God, being rich in mercy, because of His great love with which He loved us [saints IN Christ Jesus], even when we were dead in our transgressions, made us alive together with Christ (by grace you have been saved), and raised us up with Him [Jesus Christ], and seated us WITH HIM in the heavenly places “IN” Christ Jesus, so that in the ages to come He might show the surpassing riches of His grace in kindness toward us IN Christ Jesus.” Ephesians 2:4-7.
Many people seek hidden wisdom by dissecting and trisecting the Greek, but then stumble over these “Mystery” concepts taught in plain English. :0) God has made us alive TOGETHER WITH Jesus Christ ‘and’ has raised us up WITH Jesus Christ ‘and’ has seated us WITH Jesus Christ in the heavenly places IN Christ Jesus (F+S+HS = The Word) holding this entire Universe together 'IN' Himself. Paul continues this VAST teaching opening his Epistle To The Colossians, saying,

“He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of all creation. For “IN” (en = #1722) Him all things were created, both in the heavens and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or dominions or rulers or authorities--all things have been created through Him and for Him. He is before all things, and “IN” (en = #1722) Him all things hold together.” Colossians 1:15-17.
Paul is teaching that “all things” in the heavens (invisible universe) and earth (visible universe) will be summed up “IN” Christ Jesus (Eph. 1:9-10), because He (“Christ Jesus”) is an ‘almost infinite’ universe containing this Adamic universe. Go back and reread Paul’s opening statements to these Ephesians concerning the “Mystery of His Will,” saying,

“He made known to us the Mystery of His Will [Eph. 3:8-11 = God’s ‘purpose for the ages’) according to His kind intention which He purposed “IN Him” with a view to an Administration suitable to the fullness of the times [Administration of The Mystery = Eph. 3:9], that is, the summing up of all things IN Christ, things in the heavens [spirit witness of this Adamic Creation] and things on the earth [water witness of this Adamic Creation].” Ephesians 1:9-10.
Does someone want to begin explaining how ‘all things’ in the visible and invisible (Col. 1:16) universe is going to be summed up “IN” Jesus Christ walking around on the earth? :0) Good Luck! Paul already told “you Gentiles” that believers in our gospel have been raised WITH Him to be seated WITH CHRIST in the heavenly places that are “IN Christ Jesus” showing Jesus Christ (of the flesh = 2Cor. 5:16-17 we know that way NO LONGER) being seated IN Christ Jesus, just like every member of Christ’s body under Him as the “Head” (Eph. 1:22, 5:23, Col. 1:18) of our Mystery Church (#2). Christ Jesus is the Father, Son and Holy Spirit joined together as one Heavenly “Man” containing this entire universe like this with the Tabernacle (spread out) view looking like this; according to the layout of the Tabernacle of Moses and the Temple that mirrors God’s Living Word (diagram) itself.

22.jpg


Paul is teaching these Ephesians three aspects of “The Mystery” simultaneously in this third chapter with Figure 1 showing the “Mystery of His Will,” or what he characterizes as “God’s Mystery” (Col. 2:2) that is “Christ Himself.” The “Administration of The Mystery” (Eph. 3:9) concerns the summing up of all things in our local universe, which represents the right-hand one third of Figure 1 shown in Figure 2. Paul then makes the “church” connection to these larger aspects of “The Mystery,” by pointing out that Gentiles (spirit witnesses) and Jews (water witnesses) are also being summed up into the “Body of Christ” (one body) to become “Fellow Heirs” with Jews hearing and believing our Gospel in Figure 3. In each case a single spirit witness (God, Heavens, Gentiles) is being joined to a water witness (This Adamic Creation, Seen Universe (Earth), Jews = Kingdom of Priests) for the purpose of summing them both up into ‘one body’ with all the arrows pointing to “Christ Jesus” summing up the Father (spirit witness) and Holy Spirit (water witness) in 1Cor. 15:27 becoming “The Word” once again from John 1:2.

In Christ Jesus,

Terral
 
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Been thinking about JdS's emphasis on pronoun usage in Eph and to try to see if there is any basis for focusing on their use.

In Eph 1:1 we read,

Paul, an apostle of Jesus Christ by the will of God, to the saints which are at Ephesus, and to the faithful in Christ Jesus:

I guess I'm wondering if some dispy's would see this as a the saints being jewish converts and the faithful in Jesus Christ as being 'gentile' converts. ? Or is Paul using the word "and to" to modify and describe the "saints at Ephesus"??? Wondering about what Dispy's have been taught?

Not rash
this is written to the church of ephesus and to the faithful IN CHRIST ...

please do not make it difficult
 
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Notrash

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this is written to the church of ephesus and to the faithful IN CHRIST ...
please do not make it difficult

Not a difficult question. Are they two groups or the same group?

Paul, commissioner of annointed Jesus, through will of God, to the Holy ones, the ones being in Ephesus and believing in Christ Jesus.

"IN EPHESUS" is in brackets indicating it may have not been in the original texts.


http://www.blueletterbible.org/cgi-bin/versions.pl?book=Eph&chapter=1&verse=1&version=KJV#1
KJV - Eph 1:1 -Paul, an apostle of Jesus Christ by the will of God, to the saints which are at Ephesus, and to the faithful in Christ Jesus: King James Version 1611, 1769

NKJV - Eph 1:1 -PAUL, an apostle of Jesus Christ by the will of God,
To the saints who are in Ephesus, and faithful in Christ Jesus:
New King James Version © 1982 Thomas Nelson


NLT - Eph 1:1 -This letter is from Paul, chosen by God to be an apostle of Christ Jesus. It is written to God's holy people in Ephesus, who are faithful followers of Christ Jesus.
Footnote:
Some manuscripts do not include in Ephesus. New Living Translation © 1996 Tyndale Charitable Trust

NIV - Eph 1:1 -Paul, an apostle of Christ Jesus by the will of God,
To the saints in Ephesus, the faithful in Christ Jesus:
Footnote:
a Some early manuscripts do not have in Ephesus.
b Or believers who are

New International Version © 1973, 1978, 1984 International Bible Society
ESV - Eph 1:1 -Paul, an apostle of Christ Jesus by the will of God,
To the saints who are in Ephesus, and are faithful in Christ Jesus:

Footnote:
Some manuscripts saints who are also faithful The Holy Bible, English Standard Version © 2001 Crossway Bibles

NASB - Eph 1:1 -Paul, an apostle of Christ Jesus by the will of God, To the saints who are at Ephesus and {who are} faithful in Christ Jesus: New American Standard Bible © 1995 Lockman Foundation

RSV - Eph 1:1 -Paul, an apostle of Christ Jesus by the will of God, To the saints who are also faithful in Christ Jesus: Revised Standard Version © 1947, 1952.

ASV - Eph 1:1 -Paul, an apostle of Christ Jesus through the will of God, to the saints that are at Ephesus, and the faithful in Christ Jesus:


Young - Eph 1:1 -Paul, an apostle of Jesus Christ through the will of God, to the saints who are in Ephesus, and to the faithful in Christ Jesus: Robert Young Literal Translation 1862, 1887, 1898 Info

Darby - Eph 1:1 -Paul, apostle of Jesus Christ by God's will, to the saints and faithful in Christ Jesus who are at Ephesus.
J.N.Darby Translation 1890 Info

Webster - Eph 1:1 -Paul, an apostle of Jesus Christ by the will of God, to the saints who are at Ephesus, and to the faithful in Christ Jesus: Noah Webster Version 1833 Info

HNV - Eph 1:1 -Sha'ul, an apostle of Messiah Yeshua through the will of God, to the holy ones who are at Ephesus, and the faithful in Messiah Yeshua: Hebrew Names Version 2000 Info

Vulgate - Eph 1:1 -Paulus apostolus Christi Iesu per voluntatem Dei sanctis omnibus qui sunt Ephesi et fidelibus in Christo Iesu
 
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Terral

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Hi JDS:

JDS >> One thing is for sure, it was not just the gentiles at Ephesus that he was addressing but gentiles in general.
We disagree. While the Epistle is written ‘to’ you Gentiles (Eph. 3:1-3), Paul’s ‘teaching’ has application to ‘all Gentiles’ joining all believing Jews IN Christ Jesus by obeying the ‘message of truth’ (Eph. 1:13-14). You cannot place a “gentiles in general” interpretation upon Paul’s opening statements, OR upon his teaching on The Mystery, because ONLY the believers in our gospel become part of the ‘one body.’

JDS >> However, throughout this epistle he is careful to distinguish between the two entities, Jews and gentiles, that make up the church, the body of Christ because this is the thrust of the doctrine he is revealing that has been hidden, that is, the TWO will be made one in the body. This is called the "mystery of Christ" and is the theme of the epistle.
The theme of Paul’s ‘mystery’ Epistles is determined by the maturity of the member of the “Body of Christ” gathering either ‘seeds’ of faith, or developing ‘shoots’ of knowledge, or ‘fruit’ of God’s Hidden Wisdom coming to maturity for the ‘inner man’ (Romans 7:22, 2Cor. 4:16, Eph. 3:16) taught to the Colossians as “Christ IN you” (Col. 1:27). The three phases of growth for your inner man are shown here from the moment of the ‘faith to faith’ (Rom. 1:17) transaction, between the preacher and the one hearing (Fig. 1) to God resting “IN Christ” (Lord God) to begin the process of reconciling the world to Himself (2Cor. 5:19) from “IN” Christ “IN” you. Many (MANY) people scratch their heads over the seeming complicated nature of all my mystery diagrams, but they were all drawn for the benefit of “Christ In You,” looking through the spiritual eyes from God, enlarging within “Heaven IN you” (your soul) also enlarging between your own two witnesses (spirit witness = your spirit AND water witness = your physical body) to a higher realm of Christ Consciousness. The theme of Paul’s Epistle to the Ephesians is “Our Mystery Church” for the ‘infant babe’ (1Cor. 3:1-3) without the maturity of Christ in you to gather the ‘deeper things’ (Eph. 1:18) flying the speed of light over their collective heads. :0) Those among the “Body of Christ” with hearts (Christ in you) prepared for comprehending “with all the saints what is the breadth and length and height and depth” are ready for God’s ‘Mystery of Christ’ theme representing a mere microcosm (smaller version) of “The Mystery” (Eph. 3:3) itself described in brief (Eph. 1:9-10) in Paul’s opening statements. The stronger members of Christ’s body (the mature = 1Cor. 2:6-8) are perhaps ready to absorb the even larger aspects of “Christ Jesus” (The Word = F+S+HS) where the Father (spirit witness) and Holy Spirit (water witness) are also being subjected to “The Son” (1Cor. 15:27) in a series of ‘summing up’ macrocosm processes (F+S+HS = The Word) that mirror the smaller version (Mystery of Christ) to a Tee. God’s Word is purposely written so the members of each dispensation addressed can absorb the faith, knowledge and wisdom aspects from a variety of different levels with the theme maturing along with the development of each individual member.

JDS >> Here is proof of my first point: Eph 2:11 Wherefore remember, that ye [being] in time past Gentiles in the flesh, who are called Uncircumcision by that which is called the Circumcision in the flesh made by hands; 12 That at that time ye were without Christ, being aliens from the commonwealth of Israel, and strangers from the covenants of promise, having no hope, and without God in the world:

JDS Commentary >. This was not just true of the Ephesian gentiles but all gentiles.
No sir. Melchizedek was certainly a “Gentile” living hundreds of years before Mosaic Law was handed down to anyone, but even our Lord Jesus Christ is “A Priest Forever according to the Order Of Melchizedek.” Hebrews 5:6. This “Priest of God Most High” (Gen. 14:18) was making intercession for Gentiles LONG before Abraham began paying his tithes, which means other Gentiles received the blessings from God based upon His intercession (Melchizedek is the 'incarnation' of the Holy Spirit). Paul qualifies the substance of his teaching by including the phrase, “Therefore remember that ‘YOU’ . . . who are called “Uncircumcision” . . . that ‘YOU’ . . .” being very specific; while stating their 'exclusion' from the “commonwealth of ISRAEL” that has a 'beginning' with Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. Many fail to realize that Adam, Noah and Abram were all Gentiles living under Covenants established by the Lord God, BEFORE any such thing as a Jew even existed on earth. Many also ignore the fact that Jesus Christ was sent to Israel ONLY (Matt. 15:24) AND that ‘at that time’ the “Gospel of the Kingdom” (#1) was the ONLY gospel in town from where Christ says, "You worship what you do not know; we worship what we know, for salvation is from the Jews.,” (John 4:22) calling Jews God’s “children” Gentiles mere ‘dogs’ (Matt. 15:26). Therefore, Paul’s ‘context’ to these Ephesians includes the fact that God is ‘now’ making Israel Jealous (Deut. 32:17, Rom. 10:19), because “NOW” Israel stumbled over Christ (Rom. 9:30-32) opening the door for the BODY of Christ to become “Gentile Dominant.” In short, Paul’s Epistles contain ‘eternal truth’ pertaining to ‘all’ Gentiles (like Romans 2:14-15) AND ‘dispensational truth’ limiting the ‘context’ to the members of the “BODY of Christ” containing Jews and Gentiles part of a completely ‘new creation’ (Gal. 6:15).

[Continued]
 
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Terral

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JDS >> The Jews was of course, the "firstfruits" of the gospel age and the historical book, Acts, bears this out.
There is no such thing as any “Gospel Age” taught anywhere in Scripture, OR any “Church Age” created by Dispy’s and their church dogma. Peter’s “Gospel of the Kingdom” (Matt. 4:23, 9:35, etc. = Gospel #1 ) was sent to Israel ONLY (Matt. 10:5-7, Acts 2:14, 22, 36) having NOTHING to do with Paul’s “Word of the Cross” (1Cor. 1:18 = Gospel #2) gospel message at all. Paul was raised up (Acts 9:15-16) in light of Israel’s ‘transgression’ (Rom. 11:11) and sent to “Gentiles” from the very beginning of his ministry.

“But when God, who had set me apart even from my mother's womb and called me through His grace, was pleased to reveal His Son IN me (Col. 1:27 = Christ in you) so that I might preach Him among THE GENTILES, I did not immediately consult with flesh and blood, nor did I go up to Jerusalem to those who were apostles before me; but I went away to Arabia, and returned once more to Damascus.” Galatians 1:15-17.
This Galatians Epistle was drafted in about 57 AD to contain events of Acts 15 taking place in about 50 AD. We have Paul’s inclusion of 3 years (Gal. 1:18) and another 14 years (Gal. 2:1-2) to realize God raised Paul up in about 33 AD, “that I might preach Him among THE GENTILES.” Many Dispy’s hold the false notion that Paul’s “Gospel of the Grace of God” (Acts 20:24) was sent to Israel first from his comments to the Romans (Rom. 1:16, 2:9-10), but this is yet another Dispy Myth. The fact is that Paul went about “preaching the Kingdom” (Acts 20:25) first to JEWS (like the disciples of Acts 19:1-6) for the building of the Prophetic Kingdom “Bride” (John 3:29) under Peter’s stewardship, because God also sent him to Israel (Acts 9:15-16) part of a dual “whole purpose of God” (Acts 20:27). Paul was still going to ‘both’ the Kingdom Bride AND the Mystery Body, during the time this Romans Epistle was written (before 61 AD), but this Ephesians Epistle describing “The Mystery” was penned ‘after’ the close of Acts where Paul is going specifically to “you Gentiles” (Eph. 3:1-2) carrying his “Word of the Cross” (1Cor. 1:18) gospel message exclusively.
JDS >> And then the gentiles were made partakers, not to fulfill any covenant promise made to them, as did the Jews, but by the grace and mercy of God only.
Your testimony here represents an area where many Dispy’s drop the ball in ‘rightly dividing’ Paul’s Mystery Teachings from the fulfillment of Prophecy. Paul’s “you Gentiles” are NOT becoming part of any Commonwealth of Israel, or even Peter’s Prophetic Kingdom “Bride” Church (Matt. 16:16-19), as BOTH continue under Mosaic Law (Matt. 5:18, James 2:10), until heaven and earth pass away. These believing Gentiles are joining ‘other’ believing Jews in the heavenly places that are IN Christ Jesus (Eph. 2:6) by obeying the ‘message of truth’ (Eph. 1:13-14) having NOTHING to do with Israel at all. There is no such thing as Jew or Greek, or male or female, IN Christ Jesus where everything ‘earthly’ is being summed up to contain the ‘heavens’ counterpart (your angelic super-half) becoming a ‘new creature’ (2Cor. 5:16-17) never even envisioned by Israel or OT Prophecy at all. Believing Jews AND believing Gentiles ‘are’ being summed up “IN” the “one body,” but unbelievers of both groups are excluded from taking seats IN Christ Jesus IN those heavenly places.

JDS >> That is all I will say about this now but I will mention that anti-dispensationalists always pervert or misrepresent the church, what it is and what the purpose of God is in its establishment. None of them have any confidence or knowledge of God's covenant relationship with Israel and because of this they mix the two together and render much of God's word to allegory and unbelievable. These are just harsh but real facts.
Anti-dispensationalists? :0) Since our ‘mystery is great’ (Eph. 5:32) “His BODY” Church (Col. 1:24) falls under a “musterion” heading, then obviously the uninitiated souls cannot even envision the concept of things still “Hidden IN GOD” (Eph. 3:9). The typical armchair Bible commentator from the Denominations has very little understanding of the Greek “musterion” concept and does very little to increase his understanding in this very important area, which means our debates on this “Mystery” Topic becomes mired in semantics at the very start. Please allow me to make this point in a simple exercise:

http://www.antioch.com.sg/cgi-bin/bible/vines/get_defn.pl?num=1884#1

musterion primarily that which is known to the mustes, "the initiated" (from mueo, "to initiate into the mysteries;" cp. Php_4:12, mueomai, "I have learned the secret," RV). In the NT it denotes, NOT the mysterious (as with the English word), but that which, being OUTSIDE the range of unassisted natural apprehension, can be made known ONLY by Divine Revelation, and is made known in a manner and at A TIME appointed BY GOD, and to those ONLY who are ‘illumined’ by HIS SPIRIT. In the ordinary sense a "mystery" implies knowledge withheld; its Scriptural significance is truth REVEALED. Hence the terms especially associated with the subject are "made known," "manifested," "revealed," "preached," "understand," "dispensation." The definition given above may be best illustrated by the following passage: "the MYSTERY which hath been HID from ALL AGES and GENERATIONS: but NOW hath it been MANIFESTED to His saints" (Col_1:26, RV). "It is used of . . .”
In every case, Paul uses this term “musterion” to describe NOT anything mysterious at all, but ‘these things’ (2Peter 3:14-16) that are “OUTSIDE the range of unassisted natural apprehension” that “can be made known ONLY by Divine Revelation.” This means that all we have is ‘seeds’ and God must cause the growth (1Cor. 3:6-7) from the ‘inside’ of each believer where “Christ in you” is enlarging. The next important fact about any topic connected to “The Mystery” pertains to the crucial element of ‘time,’ that has a two-fold meaning for Paul and Scripture AND for every individual member of Christ’s body. Every precept teaching the infinite topic of “The Mystery” “is made known in a manner and at A TIME appointed BY GOD,” AND “to those ONLY who are illuminated by HIS SPIRIT.” This means that ALL ‘these things’ part of this “wisdom given him” (2Peter 3:14-16) were ‘revealed’ in the Pauline Epistles at God’s appointed time (62 AD+) AND a particular ‘time’ exists for every individual member of Christ’s body; “IN whom the whole building, being fitted together, is growing into a Holy Temple “IN” the Lord” (Eph. 2:21). Therefore, some members of Christ’s body reading this post will say, “What hogwash!,” while those selected by God will outgrow their infant counterparts exponentially by absorbing “what is the breadth and length and height and depth” (Eph. 1:18), simply because ‘their time’ has already come. However, the ‘time’ for those blinded by Denominationalism (2Thes. 2:7-12) will never come, so they will continue to scoff and mock and perish (Acts 13:41) to the end of their deluded lives . . .

In Christ Jesus even now,

Terral
 
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[/left]
are only the faithful in ephesus.... or are they in other places
are all faithful ... no

Obviously even the faithful saints today in New York city can benefit from the letter but that isn't the question, It is a question of the grammer.

Please dont' make it difficult. Is Pauls letter Primarily addressed to one group or more than one group?

Interlinear word for word:
Paul, commissioner of annointed Jesus, through will of God, to the Holy ones,(or saints) the ones being in Ephesus and believing (or faithful) in Christ Jesus.

NKJV-PAUL, an apostle of Jesus Christ by the will of God, To the saints who are in Ephesus, and faithful in Christ Jesus.

Darby-Paul,apostle of Jesus Christ by God's will, to the saints and faithful in Christ Jesus who are at Ephesus.

KJV-Paul, an apostle of Jesus Christ by the will of God, to the saints which are at Ephesus, and to the faithful in Christ Jesus.


The letter was found with other cities in place of "in Ephesus", but that does not answer the question either. It's simply to show that the KJV often seperates a describing phrase for emphasis that we sometimes today read or imply to be completely seperate idea.
And the same is true in Gal 6:15,16 which I assume is the source of your challange since the interlinear is so plainly stating that the holy ones in Ephesis are the ones being and believing in Christ Jesus.
In Gal, the "and to the Israel of the God" is seperate (and I think for emphasis) since Paul talked earlier about the Jew/Gentile situaltion and that individuals of all nations who are believiing in Christ are included in being "children of God", sons of God and heirs according to the promise. Gal 4:31; So then, brethren, we are not children of the bondwoman, but of the free. Gal 3:29; And if ye [be] Christ's, then are ye Abraham's seed, and heirs according to the promise.
Now to Abraham and his seed were the promises made. He saith not, And to seeds, as of many; but as of one, And to thy seed, which is Christ.

The very context of the verse 15 and 16, would be contradictory. First Paul says there are principles to understand that neither uncircumcision nor circumcision is anything, but the new creation in Christ Jesus, then he gives blessings to those who understand the principles of this rule (and that would be the faithful in Christ Jesus) who would be the 'israel of God". Circumcision has been nullified along with the law, but the 'israel of the flesh" that some propose Paul to be blessing would have to be an Israel of circumcision.

Nuff said,
Not into more aguments or discussion.
 
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Been thinking about JdS's emphasis on pronoun usage in Eph and to try to see if there is any basis for focusing on their use.

In Eph 1:1 we read,

Paul, an apostle of Jesus Christ by the will of God, to thesaints which are at Ephesus, and to the faithful in Christ Jesus:

I guess I'm wondering if some dispy's would see this as a the saints being jewish converts and the faithful in Jesus Christ as being 'gentile' converts. ? Or is Paul using the word "and to" to modify and describe the "saints at Ephesus"??? Wondering about what Dispy's have been taught?

Not rash

John Nelson Darby is considered the founder of the Dispensationalist movement. (I do not even enter a question as to whether or not this is correct, but it is commonly reported.)

This man wrote that there was no excuse for making this into a general Epistle. He basically felt that the true meaning was as Berean Todd has written.

That, plus a dollar or two, will get you a cup of coffee almost anywhere except Aribica.
 
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Jim1

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Hello,


BereanTodd (message #2, 10/17/07, 02:10am):

Just quickly grabbing my Greek NT and looking at the text the word "pistois" (translated faithful) is grammatically and adjective. It is not articular here, and I am no Greek expert, but my understanding is that if an adjective is meant to be substantival then it is usually articular. Since the word is in agreement with "hagiois" (i.e. saints), in my understanding it seems to more be modifying the word saints. A better translation might then be "to the saints who are in Ephesus and are faithful in Christ Jesus." The two underlined sections then both modifying the word saints.

http://christianforums.com/t6277764-eph-11.html


Paul in Ephesians and Colossians:

(Greek NT - W-H ) Ephesians 1:1 pauloV apostoloV cristou ihsou dia qelhmatoV qeou toiV agioiV toiV ousin [en efesw] kai pistoiV en cristw ihsou

1:1 Paul, apostle of Christ Jesus through will of God, to the holy ones, who are [in Ephesus], and believing in Christ Jesus

(Greek NT - W-H ) Ephesians 3:8 emoi tw elacistoterw pantwn agiwn edoqh h cariV auth toiV eqnesin euaggelisasqai to anexicniaston ploutoV tou cristou

3:8 to me, the least one of all holy ones, it was given, the grace, this, to the Gentiles to evangelize the untraceable wealth of the Christ

(Greek NT - W-H ) Ephesians 5:3 porneia de kai akaqarsia pasa h pleonexia mhde onomazesqw en umin kaqwV prepei agioiV

5:3 but fornication and uncleanness all or greed but-not it must be named among you according-as it is fitting to holy ones.

(Greek NT - W-H ) Ephesians 6:21 ina de eidhte kai umeiV ta kat eme ti prassw panta gnwrisei umin tucikoV o agaphtoV adelfoV kai pistoV diakonoV en kuriw

6:21 but so that you would know, even you, the things according to me, what I practice/accomplish, all things he will make known to you, Tychicus, the loved brother and believing minister in Lord

(Greek NT - W-H ) Colossians 1:1 pauloV apostoloV cristou ihsou dia qelhmatoV qeou kai timoqeoV o adelfoV 2 toiV en kolossaiV agioiV kai pistoiV adelfoiV en cristw cariV umin kai eirhnh apo qeou patroV hmwn

1:1 Paul, apostle of Christ Jesus through will of God, and Timothy, the brother, 2 to the in-Colosse holy ones and believing brothers in Christ (or, to the in-Colosse holy ones and believing, brothers in Christ), grace to you and peace from God, Father of us

(Greek NT - W-H ) Colossians 1:7 kaqwV emaqete apo epafra tou agaphtou sundoulou hmwn oV estin pistoV uper hmwn diakonoV tou cristou

1:7 According-as you learned from Epaphras, the loved fellow-servant of us, who is believing on behalf of us, minister of the Christ

(Greek NT - W-H ) Colossians 4:7 ta kat eme panta gnwrisei umin tucikoV o agaphtoV adelfoV kai pistoV diakonoV kai sundouloV en kuriw 8 on epemya proV umaV eiV auto touto ina gnwte ta peri hmwn kai parakalesh taV kardiaV umw 9 sun onhsimw tw pistw kai agaphtw adelfw oV estin ex umwn panta umin gnwrisousin ta wde

4:7 all the according-to-me things he will make known to you, Tychicus, the loved brother and believing minister and servant in Lord, 8 whom I sent to you for this same thing, so that you would know the things regarding us and they would conform the hearts of you, 9 with Onesimus the believing and loved brother, who is out of you, all things to you they will make know the things here

(Greek NT - W-H ) Ephesians 1:19 kai ti to uperballon megeqoV thV dunamewV autou eiV hmaV touV pisteuontaV kata thn energeian tou kratouV thV iscuoV autou

1:19 and what the surpassing greatness of the power of Him to/for us, the ones believing, according the energy/working of the might of the strength of Him

(Greek NT - W-H ) Ephesians 2:11 dio mnhmoneuete oti pote umeiV ta eqnh en sarki oi legomenoi akrobustia upo thV legomenhV peritomhV en sarki ceiropoihtou

2:11 Therefore you must remember that one you—the Gentiles in flesh, the ones being called Uncircumcision by the called Circumcision, in flesh, made by hands

(Greek NT - W-H ) Ephesians 2:14 autoV gar estin h eirhnh hmwn o poihsaV ta amfotera en kai to mesotoicon tou fragmou lusaV 15 thn ecqran en th sarki autou ton nomon twn entolwn en dogmasin katarghsaV ina touV duo ktish en autw eiV ena kainon anqrwpon poiwn eirhnhn 16 kai apokatallaxh touV amfoterouV en eni swmati tw qew dia tou staurou apokteinaV thn ecqran en autw

2:14 For He is the peace of us, the one having made the both things one thing and the division of the partition having undone/loosed, 15 the hostility, in the flesh of him, the law of the commandments in dogmas/regulations having done away, so that the two ones He would create in Himself into one new man, making peace, 16 and would reconcile the both ones in one body to the God through the cross, having killed the hostility in Himself. 17 And having come, He evangelized peace to you, to the far ones, and peace to the near ones, 18 that through Him we (the saints, both Gentile and Jew, in one body, one group) have the access, the both ones, in/by one Spirit to the Father.

(Greek NT - W-H ) Ephesians 3:1 toutou carin egw pauloV o desmioV tou cristou ihsou uper umwn twn eqnwn

3:1 of this thing, on account of, I, Paul, the prisoner of the Christ Jesus on behalf of you, the Gentiles

(Greek NT - W-H ) Ephesians 4:12 proV ton katartismon twn agiwn eiV ergon diakoniaV eiV oikodomhn tou swmatoV tou cristou

4:12 to the completing of the holy ones, to/for work of ministry, to/for building of the body of the Christ


Jim:

Neither the adjective “agioV” (loved) nor the adjective “pistoV” (believing) has to have an article in order to function as a noun. This is shown in Ephesians 5:3 (above), where the article does not appear in the phrase “kaqwV prepei agioiV (according-as it is fitting to holy ones [to saints]).”

However, an observation in the Greek New Testament was made by a man named Sharp that if two or more nouns (or words functioning as nouns) are joined by the conjunction “kai” (and), and if only the first noun has an article, then all of the nouns share the one article, and all of the nouns refer to the same person. This observation has come to be known as “Sharp’s Rule.” Dr. Daniel B. Wallace, the chief editor of the New English Translation (NET) Bible, and the author of the book Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics, is careful to point out that this observation is absolute (having no exceptions) only when the nouns are singular and personal, that is, referring to a single person. When the nouns are plural and/or impersonal, that is, referring to a thing or things or to persons, then the observation is no longer absolute and consequently has exceptions.

The absolute version of this “Sharp’s Rule” is shown (above) in Ephesians 6:21 (“tucikoV o agaphtoV adelfoV kai pistoV diakonoV en kuriw [Tychicus, the loved brother and believing minister in Lord]”), in Colossian 4:7 (“tucikoV o agaphtoV adelfoV kai pistoV diakonoV kai sundouloV en kuriw [Tychicus, the loved brother and believing minister and fellow-servant in Lord]”) and in Colossians 4:9 (“sun onhsimw tw pistw kai agaphtw adelfw [with Onesimus, the believing and loved brother]”).

This same grammatical construction appears (above) in Ephesians 1:1 (“toiV agioiV toiV ousin en efesw kai pistoiV en cristw ihsou [to the only ones, who are in Ephesus, and believing in Christ Jesus]”) and MAYBE in Colossians 1:2 (“toiV en kolossaiV agioiV kai pistoiV adelfoiV en cristw [to the in-Colosse holy ones and believing brothers in Christ / to the in-Colosse holy ones and believing, brothers in Christ]”). I say “maybe” regarding Colossians 1:2 because “toiV en kolossaiV agioiV kai pistoiV adelfoiV en cristw” could just as well mean “to the in-Colosse holy and believing brothers in Christ,” the adjectives “agioiV” (holy) and “pistoiV” (believing) functioning, not as nouns, but as adjectives modifying the noun “adelfoiV” (brothers). This is not the absolute version of Sharp’s Rule, because the nouns are plural instead of singular. So exceptions are possible. Nevertheless, the use of this kind of grammatical construction does in fact suggest (though it does not absolutely require) that both adjectives refer to the same people both in Ephesians 1:1 and in Colossians 1:2, the “holy” ones BEING the “believing” ones.

The question is this: Does Paul divide the body of Christ (one group) into two different groups, the “holy” ones (Jewish believers) and the “believing” ones (Gentile believers), in his epistles to the Ephesians and the Colossians?

In Colossians 1:2 (above), if “toiV en kolossaiV agioiV kai pistoiV adelfoiV en cristw” means “to the in-Colosse holy and believing brothers in Christ,” the adjectives “agioiV” (holy) and “pistoiV” (believing) modifying the noun “adelfoiV” (brothers), then Paul certainly does not divide the “brothers” (one group) into two different groups, but he describes the one group (“brothers”) as being both “holy” and “believing.”

On the other hand, if “toiV en kolossaiV agioiV kai pistoiV adelfoiV en cristw” in Colossians 1:2 means “to the in-Colosse holy ones and believing brothers in Christ,” the adjective “agioiV” (holy) functioning as a noun, then the question is this: Does Paul divide the body of Christ (one group) into two different groups, the “holy” ones (Jewish believers) and the “believing brothers” (Gentile believers)? The answer is no, because in Colossians 1:1 (above), Paul refers to “timoqeoV o adelfoV (Timothy, the brother),” and we know from Acts 16:1-3 that Timothy was a Jewish believer.

However, if “toiV en kolossaiV agioiV kai pistoiV adelfoiV en cristw” in Colossians 1:2 means “to the in-Colosse holy ones and believing, brothers in Christ,” then the question is this: Does Paul divide the body of Christ (one group) into two different groups, the “holy” ones (Jewish believers) and the “believing” ones (Gentile believers), all of whom are “adelfoiV en cristw (brothers in Christ)?” The answer is no, because in Ephesians 1:19 (above), Paul says, “eiV hmaV touV pisteuontaV (to/for us, the ones believing),” including himself among “the ones believing / the believing ones;” and because in Ephesians 5:3 (above), after having referred to the referent of “you” as “the Gentiles” in Ephesians 2:11 and 3:1 (above), Paul says to the referent of “you” this: “mhde onomazesqw en umin kaqwV prepei agioiV (but-not it must be named among you according-as it is fitting to holy ones);” and because in Ephesians 4:12 (above), Paul says this: “proV ton katartismon twn agiwn eiV ergon diakoniaV eiV oikodomhn tou swmatoV tou cristou (to the completing of the holy ones, to/for work of ministry, to/for building of the body of the Christ),” identifying “twn agiwn (the holy ones)” as “tou swmatoV tou cristou (the body of the Christ).”

In Ephesians 2:14-16 (above), Paul plainly states that both Gentiles and Jews are united into “one new man” in Christ, and that “the both in one body” are reconciled to God through the cross; and in 2:18 (above), Paul plainly refers to the both as one group (“we”) having access by one Spirit to the Father through Christ. Therefore, when Paul addresses himself to the ones who are “in Christ” in Ephesians 1:1 and in Colossians 1:2, he is addressing himself to this “one new man / one body,” all of whose members are both “holy” and “believing.”

The conclusion that Paul divides the body of Christ (one group) into two different groups, the “holy” ones (Jewish believers) and the “believing” ones (Gentile believers), is a contradiction of literally everything that Paul says throughout his epistles to the Ephesians and the Colossians.


Jim
 
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Jim1

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Hello,


Paul does not say in Ephesians 1:11-12 that “we” are the ones who “first trusted” and that “you” are the ones who “also trusted.” This rendering in the KJV is a terrible distortion of the Greek.

Paul says in Ephesians 1:7-14, “IN WHOM WE (all believers) have the ransom through His Blood ... IN WHOM ALSO WE (all believers) were made an inheritance ... for US (all believers) to be for the praise of His glory (at the resurrection), the ones having before hoped in the Christ (all believers [we/us] hope in Christ in this life before being for the praise of God’s glory at the resurrection [Romans 5:1-2, 8:14-18, 8:23-25 and 9:22-24 and 1 Corinthians 15:19-23 and Ephesians 1:14]), IN WHOM ALSO YOU (the believers to whom the epistle is written) ... were sealed with the Holy Spirit of the promise, which is a guarantee of OUR (that of all believers) inheritance until the ransom (the resurrection) of the possession (the body of Christ), to/for the praise of His glory (at the resurrection).”

Paul switches from “we/us” in Ephesians 1:7-12 to “you” in 1:13 to “our” in 1:14 for the same reason that he switches from “us” to “you” in 2:5 to “us” in 2:7 to “you” in 2:8 to “we” in 2:10 and from “all the building (we)” in 2:21 to “you” in 2:22, Paul explicitly including “you” in “all the building (we)” in 2:18-21, and from “you” to “us” in Colossians 2:13. Paul intermittently inserts “you” where he would normally say “we” in stating what is true of “us” in Christ in order to make what he is stating to be true all believers (“us”) in Christ more personal for the believers to whom the epistle is written (“you”).

What is true of “US” (all believers) in Christ in Ephesians 1:11-14 is this: “in whom also WE were made an inheritance ... in whom also WE ... were sealed with ... a guarantee of OUR inheritance.” However, in order to make what he is stating to be true of all believers (“US”) in Christ more personal for the believers to whom the epistle is written (“YOU”), Paul says it this way: “in whom also WE were made an inheritance ... in whom also YOU ... were sealed with ... a guarantee of OUR inheritance.”

What is true of “US” (all believers) in Christ in Colossians 2:13 is this: “and US, being dead by/in the trespasses, He made alive with, US with Him, having forgiven US all the trespasses.” Compare Ephesians 2:5, where what is true of “US” (all believers) in Christ is this: “and US, being dead by/in the trespasses, He made alive with the Christ—by grace WE are saved.” However, in order to make what he is stating to be true of all believers (“US”) in Christ more personal for the believers to whom the epistle is written (“YOU”), Paul says it this way: “and YOU, being dead by/in the trespasses and the uncircumcision of YOUR flesh, He made alive with, YOU with Him, having forgiven US all the trespasses (Colossians 2:13),” and, “and US, being dead by/in the trespasses, He made alive with the Christ—by grace YOU are saved (Ephesians 2:5).”

Paul does not contradict his doctrine by dividing the body of Christ (one group [we/us/our]) into two different groups. It is the ones who pervert the words of the Bible who contradict what Paul says by dividing the body of Christ (one group [we/us/our]) into two different groups.



Jim
 
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Jim1

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Hello,


Notrash (message #28, 10/23/07, 05:21am):

Question: Is the reason that they were without Christ because they were aliens from the (physical) commonwealth of Israel, strangers from the covenants of promise, hopeless and without God in the world?


Jim:

It is because the Ephesians were previously (as unbelievers, and like all unbelievers, both Gentile and Jew) NOT “in Christ” that they were previously (1) “without Christ” and (2) “excluded from the citizenship of the Israel” and (3) “strangers from the covenants (plural) of the promise (the promise of the Abrahamic Covenant is received in the New Covenant by the ones who believe in Christ [the mediator of the New Covenant]). But now, as believers in Christ, they are (like all believers, both Gentile and Jew) “in Christ” (no longer “without Christ”) and “no longer strangers” (no longer “strangers from the covenants of the promise,” having received the promise of the Abrahamic Covenant in the New Covenant through belief in Christ [the mediator of the New Covenant]) and “the saints’ fellow citizens” (no longer “excluded from the citizenship of the Israel,” the citizens of this New Covenant “Israel” being “the saints” [all believers in Christ], and the “Cornerstone” of this New Covenant “Israel” being “Christ Jesus Himself”) and “fellow partakers of the promise in Christ Jesus through the Gospel.”

Ephesians 2:11 Therefore YOU MUST REMEMBER THAT YOU ONCE—the Gentiles in flesh, the ones being called Uncircumcision (the so-called Uncircumcision) by the called Circumcision (the so-called Circumcision), in flesh, made by hands—12 THAT YOU WERE AT THAT TIME (but are no longer [implicit]) (1) without Christ, (2) excluded from the citizenship of the Israel, and (3) strangers from the covenants of the promise, not having hope (only believers in Christ have hope), and godless in the world. 13 But NOW, IN CHRIST JESUS, you the ones ONCE being far, near you were made BY/IN THE BLOOD OF THE CHRIST. ... 19 Therefore consequently NO LONGER are you strangers (from the covenants of the promise) and neighbors (non-citizens), but the saints’ fellow citizens (of the Israel, whose citizens are the saints [all believers in Christ], and whose Cornerstone is Christ) and God’s family members, 20 having been built on the foundation of the apostles and prophets, Christ Jesus Himself being the Cornerstone, 21 in whom all the building (we [all believers]), being fitted together, is growing into a holy temple in the Lord, 22 in whom also you (we [all believers], and therefore you [the believers to whom the epistle is written]) are being built together into a dwelling place of the God by/in the Spirit. ... 3:6 to be, the Gentiles, fellow heirs and fellow body members and fellow partakers of the promise in Christ Jesus through the Gospel.

The Israel in Ephesians 2:12, from whose citizenship the Ephesians USED TO BE excluded (as unbelievers), but of which the Ephesians NOW (as believers in Christ) are fellow citizens, is the Israel in Romans 9:6-8, from whose citizenship Jewish unbelievers ARE excluded (as unbelievers). This is the Israel whose citizens are the saints (all believers in Christ), namely, US (all believers), and whose Cornerstone is Christ. Paul identifies the citizens of this New Covenant Israel in Romans 9:6-8 as “the children of the promise / the children of God,” whom he had previously identified as “us/we,” all believers in Christ, both Gentile and Jew, in Romans 4:13-16 / 8:14-18. Gentile believers are fellow citizens of this Israel for the same reason that Jewish unbelievers are excluded from the citizenship of this Israel, the reason being that citizenship in this New Covenant Israel is based, not on being Jewish or on the law of Moses, but on belief in Christ (the mediator of the New Covenant and the Cornerstone of New Covenant Israel).

That is why, in Romans 11:16-24 / 11:25-27, where Paul analogizes Israel in 11:25-27 as the cultivated olive tree in 11:16-24, Paul says that the unbelieving part of the tree (comprised of Jewish unbelievers) is broken off from the believing part of the tree (comprised of Jewish believers in Christ) UNTIL the Gentiles (Gentile believers in Christ) have been grafted into the believing part of the tree (comprised of all believers in Christ, both Gentile and Jew).

These two parts of the tree in Romans 11:16-24, which are the two parts of Israel in 11:25-27, are the two Israels in 9:6-8 (New Covenant Israel [the saints, both Gentile and Jew]) and in 9:31-32 and 11:7-11 (Old Covenant Israel [the Jews (non-saints)]).

Paul does not divide the body of Christ (one group [we/us/our]) into two groups. The citizenship of New Covenant Israel is comprised of the body of Christ (the saints [all believers in Christ, both Gentile and Jew]), the vessels of God’s mercy (Romans 9:22-24). God’s mercy does not glorify the flesh (the recipient being a Jew). Rather, God’s mercy glorifies Christ (the recipient being a saint [a believer in Christ, whether Gentile or Jew]).


Jim
 
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