Eastern ECFs on Deuterocanon

MrPolo

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"Where does the Bible tell us that ___________ is the criteria for selecting Biblical books?"

This always takes out the "must be Hebrew" thing (which, incidently, would exclude the NT as well as the Deuterocanon).

He says "only the OT" has to be Hebrew. :) Of course, that doesn't explain why other Hebrew texts in the ancient world aren't in his Bible, including books like Sirach which were discovered at Qumran in Hebrew and thought to have originally been in Hebrew. Basically he's trying to come up with a system of criteria that will validate only the books in his own Bible after the fact. But your first sentence here is the crux of what I am trying to get through. He can't answer the question "why is that the criteria?" And he is quite upset at this point and has said some mean things to me and another of my friends in that thread who is a very charitable guy...he says that I'm misrepresenting his position by saying he is his own authority, etc... But anyway if I planted a seed, great!
 
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Ignatius21

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I found this link quite helpful: The Canon Question | Called to Communion

Granted I am still a Protestant, though some days I'm not sure why.

This site, Called to Communion, is specifically written by former Reformed/Calvinist people who've become Roman Catholic. As such their inevitable conclusions to all questions of authority, etc. go back to the RC Magisterium. They, as well as all people, are bound by presuppositions. The EO obviously would reject the conclusions, which kind of boil down to "The Canon is the Canon because the Roman Catholic Church has defined it as such, through councils ratified by Popes, please see Matt. 16:18." However they do a very good job of uprooting the assumptions of sola scriptura, and in particular (see Section B) the "must be in Hebrew" criterion.

I'm finding that what drives the Protestant understanding of the Canon is the need to not allow any earthly authority to "stand above" the Canon itself, because then God's word would be subject to human authentication or authority. So the Bible floats above the Church, which must derive all doctrine from the Bible, but must first know what the Bible is. So the end result is often some mixture of subjective opinion, feelings of being led by the Holy Spirit, selective appeals to the universal witness of the early Church (except when the early Church endorsed the deuterocanon), and most especially to the "self authentication" of Scripture. So circularity does indeed rule that roost. Calvin's own criteria included things like "I can detect the presence of the Spirit in it, it contains nothing unworthy of the Gospel, and it has the universal acceptance of the Church through history." At least he applied that to some questioned NT books (I think it was Revelation...). Problem is, when I apply that same set of criteria to the book of Wisdom, I score 3 out of 3, yet Calvin would disagree. So obviously I'm either misled, deceived, or duped by the Devil? Or, as often happens in Reformed circles, assumed to be under-informed or not have studied enough.

I have lately been having talks with some of the elders and pastors at my church about this very topic. So far I'm finding nothing but the same circular arguments repeated, or recommendations for 800 page books that are supposed to answer my questions.

Here's what I've come to see: the Protestant position was driven by a need to still have authority in the Church, but without any dependence upon bishops--or else they would have to acknowledge that they had broken away and lost authority to teach and exercise discipline. So they assume that the Bible is given by the Spirit, but that the Church is essentially left to figure out the rest. In fact, despite talk of the church being led by the Spirit, in practice it's treated as though God wound up the springs and then just let it run. If one believes that the same Spirit that gave the Scripture through humans in the Church (whether the Old or New Covenant), also guided humans in the Church to recognize and receive those Scriptures, and then to understand and teach those Scriptures, there's no longer a problem of some human authority "standing above" the Scriptures. Rather there's just the work of the Holy Spirit from start to finish.

It seems, to me, futile to either (a) start with a church and derive the Scriptures from it, or (b) start with Scriptures and derive the Church from it. Both must be present together because they're interdependent.

And I would not have said stuff like that a year ago.

Anyway maybe that link will give you some new questions to ask your friend. I will say that if one is led away from sola scriptura, it doesn't immediately answer the question of where authority lies. That apologetics site assumes that the only viable option is Rome and does a dandy job of entirely ignoring Orthodoxy.
 
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MrPolo

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Calvin's own criteria included things like "I can detect the presence of the Spirit in it, it contains nothing unworthy of the Gospel, and it has the universal acceptance of the Church through history." At least he applied that to some questioned NT books (I think it was Revelation...). Problem is, when I apply that same set of criteria to the book of Wisdom, I score 3 out of 3, yet Calvin would disagree. So obviously I'm either misled, deceived, or duped by the Devil? Or, as often happens in Reformed circles, assumed to be under-informed or not have studied enough.

Next time someone gives you this angle, send them to my "Is that Scripture?" Quiz. :)

Thanks for the link.
 
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Kristos

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Do you Orthodox friends of mine have a resource or link to a page providing Eastern Fathers' quotations of the Deuterocanon as Scripture? I've got someone in another forum trying to tell me the East "almost universally rejected" the Deutercanon, which I think is plain nonsense based on the ones I already know who embraced the books. Thx! :)

Did you check with SummaScriptura? He seems to be the expert on such things...
 
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MrPolo

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If only the Hebrew version is the only right version, then why did all the First Century Jews and Christians use the Greek version? ;)

Including Jesus! Perhaps He has no authority over the Protestant view. :)
 
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Macarius

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The response is that because the NT is in Greek it uses the Greek translation, but that Christ was (most likely) using Aramaic when speaking and Hebrew when quoting (since he was, generally, speaking to those who would have done the same). It has to do with what we view the "text" to be - is it the finished product (in Greek) or does that finished product reflect an earlier reality (Christ's actual words, to which we no longer have access) which is itself the "text"? If the later, then Christ seeming to speak "Greek" in the Greek finished product of the Gospels doesn't matter.

Mmmmm... literary theory....
 
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MrPolo

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I know that you asked about the east, but I wrote my doctoral dissertation on Clement of Rome's (96AD) use of the Jewish scriptures and he uses the Deutero-canon without reserve!

Would you share some of those instances where Clement used the Deuterocanon without reserve? Thanks!
 
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ClementofRome

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Would you share some of those instances where Clement used the Deuterocanon without reserve? Thanks!

Some of the following is allusion and some is direct reference. The list just hits on some spots where Clem uses the Deutero-Canon and the Pseudepigrapha

1 Clem and the Deutero-Canon, Pseudopigrapha, DSS

2:2
“rich peace”…4 Macc. 3:20

2:3
“imploring him to be merciful”…2 Macc. 2:22, 7:27, 10:26

3:1
“all glory and enlargement”…Ecclus. 47:12

3:4
“death entered the world”…Wis of Solomon 2:24

6:4
Similar language is found in Ecclus. (Sirach) 28:14-19

7:5
“opportunity for repentance”…Wisdom 12:10

7:6
Noah preaching repentance??? Sybilline Oracles 1:128 …3:97-828…Theophilus, ad Autol. 2:36…Josephus, Ant. 1:74

9:3
Enoch…Gen 5:24 (comp. Ecclus. 44:16-17)

9:4
Noah…”second birth to the world by his ministry” (see Sybilline Orac. 1:195)… Genesis 6:6ff

20:12
“glory and majesty for ever and ever” …a possible parallel in Ecclus. 44:2, “The Lord has made/created/wrought much glory, His majesty from eternity (forever).”

25:1-5
This is fascinating. It appears that he uses the story of the Phoenix illustratively and not necessarily authoritatively. Assump. of Moses or the Sybilline Orac. (8:139)

27:4
“by his majestic word he created the universe…” Wisdom 9:2 (in light of the quotation to follow, I dare say that this is the background of the phrase).

27:5
“who will say to him…” Wisdom 12:12


35:3
“all holy”…only occurs in 4 Macc. 7:4 and 14:7

45:7
2 Macc. 14:34; Wis. 10:20; and indirectly in 2 Macc. 8:36

47:7
“heap blasphemies upon the name of the Lord…” 2 Macc 8:4 has very similar language.

55:4-5
Judith 8-13

59:3-4
Judith 9:11

61:2
“king of the ages..” Tobit 13:6,10
 
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Ignatius21

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What's the link between the Assumption of Moses and the Phoenix story? What's the link between the Assumption of Moses and the deuterocanon? I know it was an "apocryphal" Jewish writing but didn't know that it had ever been considered part of even the expanded LXX "canon" of the OT.

A common comeback to something like the use of the deuterocanon by Clement, or any other early writer, will always be "yeah, well Paul quoted from pagan poets but that doesn't mean he thought they were scripture."
 
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MrPolo

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common comeback to something like the use of the deuterocanon by Clement, or any other early writer, will always be "yeah, well Paul quoted from pagan poets but that doesn't mean he thought they were scripture."

That's why quotation doesn't equal canonicity. However, quotation is much stronger if the person says, "As it is written..." or "As the divine writings say..."

But the identification of the canon necessarily requires the recognition of an authoritative body. You see as I described herein that the Protestants with whom I am discussing are trying to advance every criteria they can to justify their canon without identifying an authority. And it is resulting in inconsistent application.
 
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ClementofRome

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The conclusion of my doctoral dissertation is that Clement had no set OT canon. He uses "just as it is written" about all sorts of things (Eldad and Modad...no longer exists). Clement does in fact consider certain deutero-canonical texts as "scriptural."

Also, see my comment just above the list....the Assump of Moses is from Pseudepigrapha...
 
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Macarius

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I think the very idea of a "closed canon" would have seemed quite odd and novel to St. Clement. The Jews - specifically the hellenistic pharisees - wouldn't "close" their canon until the 90's AD. Even then, their canon works like concentric circles surrounding the Torah first, then the rest of the Tanakh, then the Mishnah, then the Talmud, and then further writings today. Scripture, in that idea, works more in series of degrees relative to the direct words and revelations of God.

The early church, including St. Clement, seems to have kept this idea of Scripture - at first (in the New Testament writings and the Apostolic Fathers) the OT was the center of the circle IF understood through the "lense" of Christ (indeed, Christ Himself would be the center of the circle, and OT - prophesying of Him and telling us of Him - would have been the second ring). By the time of St. Irenaeus - perhaps WITH St. Irenaeus (as both Justin and Melito before him still seem on the older model) the Gospels take the center as witnesses of the revelation of Christ. It is still, essentially, the same system, but the writings of the Apostles become increasingly important as the years march by. They are elevated, by this, to that central status. But still there doesn't seem to be concern with closing the canon, because St. Irenaeus isn't concerned with a systematic exposition of Scripture, but rather with the fact that Scripture (the NT in particular, as the lense by which we understand the OT) reveals the "canon" (Christ) by which all theology makes sense.

Since other texts, in varying degrees, also manifest this revelation of Christ (i.e. the Didache, the writings of St. Ignatius, St. Irenaeus' writings themselves) they gain status. The "official" canon only seems to start even to develop near the end of the 2nd century (St. Irenaeus' time) and, like official doctrinal forumals, it develops exclusively to eliminate heretical texts. This was the whole point of including all four canonical gospels: they are DIFFERENT (there is no "closed" or singular official account) but all four are non-docetist and non-gnostic (they focus on the cross and resurrection and principle events). It was the least restrictive way to eliminate un-canonical gospels (gospels that do not reflect the revelatory "canon" of Christ).

In other words, the revelation had to pre-exist the construction of the canon; and the canon itself didn't close into a hard binary (in vs. out) except in cases of heresy. Rather, local practice prevailed based on what scriptures were available (what they had copies of) and what was read in the churches themselves. This wasn't a threat to the unity of the Church because, as St. Irenaeus put it, the whole church taught roughly the same gospel - and it recieved this gospel from the authority of those appointed by the apostles.

The tradition and authority (which safeguarded that tradition) was both informed by the books later called Scripture and was, itself, formative to considering those books to BE Scripture. We can quibble over what criteria makes something Scripture or not, but we all agree that the process - whatever it is - is guided by the Holy Spirit (since we all believe in the inspiration of those books). Historically, this process USED church authority and tradition. That means the Holy Spirits USED church authority and tradition - which means those can be vehicles of inspiration.

The need for a closed canon (and a hard-line between inspired / not-inspired as opposed to rings of concentric degrees of inspiration) seems to increase if / when Scripture becomes a source of theology (like a foundation of evidence from which we construct systematic theology) rather than a meditation ON theology which we have already been taught.

For the early church, the theology was taught - the Scripture reinforced and supported the teaching. For sola scriptura, the Scripture is the source; as such, issues like canonicity and hermeneutics are dramatically more important because the stakes are so much higher.

In Christ,
Macarius
 
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ArmyMatt

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Did anyone save the content from the post: The Banana Republican: The "Deuterocanon" Is Scripture!? It is no longer online.

a lot of the folks who responded aren't around anymore. this was 9 years ago.
 
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RobNJ

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So I should not bother asking ArmyMatt?

I'm writing this reply at 11:20 PM.... It's 40 minutes until Pascha (Orthodox "Easter").. Not exactly the time to dig up a 9 year old thread.
Not sure about anyone else, but I've never actually saved the content of a blog post.
 
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