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Easiest Defense of Sola Scriptura

Berean777

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This includes the structure of the Church. Whether you like it or not, desire to be free from submission is a carnal passion

The structure is not material and is not man/beast made. The structure of the new religious movement that Jesus established is spiritual and one that is not based on submission to man. The spiritual structure of the church that Jesus established has the motto, the greatest amongst you is your servant.

The structure that Jesus established is not the same same, of the old same of the legalistic pharisical institution that he disassociated himself from.

Jesus is the Kingly Chief Priest who intercedes on our behalves in the Holy of Holies in heaven. I submit fully to Jesus Christ my one and only Chief Priest.

Submission to a Chief Priest like a Patriarch or Pope is a carnal choice, that results in a passion for a man beast worldly religious system that God divorced 2000 years ago and made as a desolate house.

If God made that self same infrustructure that you talk about desolate, then the structure has changed with the changing of the covenant.
 
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sculleywr

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The structure is not material and is not man/beast made. The structure of the new religious movement that Jesus established is spiritual and one that is not based on submission to man. The spiritual structure of the church that Jesus established has the motto, the greatest amongst you is your servant.

The structure that Jesus established is not the same same, of the old same of the legalistic pharisical institution that he disassociated himself from.

Jesus is the Kingly Chief Priest who intercedes on our behalves in the Holy of Holies in heaven. I submit fully to Jesus Christ my one and only Chief Priest.

Submission to a Chief Priest like a Patriarch or Pope is a carnal choice, that results in a passion for a man beast worldly religious system that God divorced 2000 years ago and made as a desolate house.

If God made that self same infrustructure that you talk about desolate, then the structure has changed with the changing of the covenant.
The structure of the Church, with Bishops and Elders and Deacons, is in the Scripture. Don't like it? The Orthodox Church's leaders didn't invent it. God did. He's the one you're saying made the mistake.

God did not make a lone ranger structureless chaotic church where your truth is equal to mine is equal to Hitler's. He made one Church, one Body with ONE Faith, ONE Baptism, ONE Christ. Refusal to submit to the structure GOD made is carnal. You're the one saying God made a carnal structure. You're the one saying that the ENTIRETY of I Timothy, II Timothy, and Titus are completely lies. Sorry, you're telling me to obey your tradition over God's commands. I say only one thing to you: Matthew 16:23
 
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PeaceByJesus

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Basic logic. It doesn't make sense to apply it to the church.
It's not about what individual people believe but what the church teaches.
Basic logic? So only individuals are judged according to what they do and effect and not bodies of individuals, which instead are only to be judged by what they profess, when in practice they count and treat as members those who publicly are known to deny official teaching, and overall fail to discipline them. What judge would uphold that?

What insolence! And thus Rome cannot be charged with this failure and producing a morally liberal near-majority since on paper she opposes such. But those who sat in the seat of Moses could be charged with acting contrary to what they professed.

Then the Pharisees and scribes asked him, Why walk not thy disciples according to the tradition of the elders, but eat bread with unwashen hands? He answered and said unto them, Well hath Esaias prophesied of you hypocrites, as it is written, This people honoureth me with their lips, but their heart is far from me. Howbeit in vain do they worship me, teaching for doctrines the commandments of men. (Mark 7:5-7)

You are have a tendency to define logic, based on whether is conforms to your illogical reasoning.

Faulty analogy, as you are avoiding the key aspect that the congregation continually affirms as members those engaged in sodomy and does not engage in any real discipline. If this was the case then most certainly it would warrant the conclusion that the congregation (or leadership) overall believed sodomy was acceptable, or at least they did not see it as warranting Biblical discipline.
Even if every single person in the church believed sodomy was acceptable it still wouldn't change the teaching of the church.
You are simply reiterating your attempted damage control that what was refuted. If said church counted and treated such as members then Biblically that is what she truly believes, or as said, at least does not see such as warranting Biblical discipline.

I will shew thee my faith by my works. (James 2:18)

For the kingdom of God is not in word, but in power. (1 Corinthians 4:20)

Wherefore by their fruits ye shall know them. (Matthew 7:20)

What kind of nonsense is this? You seem bound to defend Rome as much as some of its members do. You mean that if a team fails to overall discipline players for continued disregards of rules and treats such as members in good standing, regardless of what official policy states, then it says absolutely nothing about them?!
Those who want to follow Jesus do so through the Church he founded.
Which statement as applying to Rome, besides not answering the question, is simply begging the question. And your statement excludes all you are not Catholic, and which excludes you as wanting to follow Jesus if you are not (but lets forget the charade of you calling yourself a Protestant), yet which exclusion contrary to other Caths.
They follow what the Church teaches and that teaching isn't effected by the actions of any individuals within that church. If individuals do bad things all it shows is there are sinners in the church, not that Jesus' Church is bad.
Read your Bible. It is what one does and effectually produces that constitutes the evidence of what persons or institutions believe.
Dude, the text you seemingly object to a word study,...
Catholics do not worship Mary.
Which is more mere profession, and contrary to what Scripture reveals, in which one would have a hard time in Bible times explaining kneeling before a statue and praising the entity it represented in the unseen world, beseeching such for Heavenly help, and making offerings to them, and giving glory and titles and ascribing attributes to such which are never given in Scripture to created beings (except to false gods), including having the uniquely Divine power glory to hear and respond to virtually infinite numbers of prayers individually addressed to them

Which manner of adulation would constitute worship in Scripture, yet Catholics imagine they avoid crossing the invisible line between mere "veneration" and worship.

"Moses, Moses, put down those rocks! I was only engaging in hyper dulia, not adoring her. Can't you tell the difference? "
"If your knowledge of Catholicism is that deficient, there is nothing I can do to help you and I will not be able to discuss Catholicism with you until you first learn the basicsof what the Catholic Church teaches. "
You continues to resort to this, but as shown, it is because I know what basics of what the Catholic Church teaches, as well as her attempted supports for her traditions of men, that i oppose such in the light of Scripture, by the grace of God.
This shows you haven't read the writings of members of the NT church.
Really? The writings of members of the NT church is that of the NT, and in which where Rome is substantially missing and contrary to.
You must not know very many people. There are plenty of people who believe in Jesus but are unwilling to repent. They won't be saved because faith alone isn't enough.
You must not know very many Scriptures which reveal saving faith as only being that which effects characteristic obedience of faith, "things that accompany salvation." (Heb. 6:9) Those who are impenitently are contrary to this do not have true faith, as explained and shown. Repeatedly reiterating what has been refuted will not make it true.

But therefore a person who truly believes with Biblical saving faith, which James helps describe, will not refuse to repent, as that would be inconsistent with believing. Thus,
But if any provide not for his own, and specially for those of his own house, he hath denied the faith, and is worse than an infidel. (1 Timothy 5:8)

This Protestant tradition of your can't be found anywhere in scripture.
Actually you have only treated Protestantism as being contrary to this, and which is no mere tradition, but is manifestly revealed in Scripture. In which saving faith is that which effects confession of the Lord in word and in deed, not only in tongue and in baptism, (Acts 8:12; 10:47) but in worship, prayer, learning, works of faith, and esp. as towards the brethren.

We having the same spirit of faith, according as it is written, I believed, and therefore have I spoken; we also believe, and therefore speak; (2 Corinthians 4:13)

Verily, verily, I say unto you, He that believeth on me, the works that I do shall he do] also; and greater works than these shall he do; because I go unto my Father. (John 14:12)

If ye know that he is righteous, ye know that every one that doeth righteousness is born of him. (1 John 2:29)

In this the children of God are manifest, and the children of the devil: whosoever doeth not righteousness is not of God, neither he that loveth not his brother. (1 John 3:10)

And like new converts and David, repenting when convicted of not acting consistent with faith.

And many that believed came, and confessed, and shewed their deeds. (Acts 19:18)

For Godly sorrow worketh repentance to salvation not to be repented of: but the sorrow of the world worketh death. For behold this selfsame thing, that ye sorrowed after a godly sort, what carefulness it wrought in you, yea, what clearing of yourselves, yea, what indignation, yea, what fear, yea, what vehement desire, yea, what zeal, yea, what revenge! In all things ye have approved yourselves to be clear in this matter. (2 Corinthians 7:10-11)

In contrast,
...the eyes of the Lord run to and fro throughout the whole earth, to shew himself strong in the behalf of them whose heart is perfect toward him. Herein thou hast done foolishly: therefore from henceforth thou shalt have wars. Then Asa was wroth with the seer, and put him in a prison house; for he was in a rage with him because of this thing. And Asa oppressed some of the people the same time. (2 Chronicles 16:9-10)

But therefore a person who truly believes with Biblical saving faith, which James helps describe, will not refuse to repent, as that would be inconsistent with believing. Thus, But if any provide not for his own, and specially for those of his own house, he hath denied the faith, and is worse than an infidel. (1 Timothy 5:8)
Interpretation error. Denying the faith doesn't mean he never believed. Peter denied his faith yet he still believed.
Wrong: the subject was what characterizes saving faith, and thus what is inconsistent with believing, not whether one once believed. And since the negligence here meant that one denied the faith, thus it proves my point that obedience is consistent with believing, and thus a true believer will repent when convicted of not doing so, though God may need to use strong persuasion.

For if we would judge ourselves, we should not be judged. But when we are judged, we are chastened of the Lord, that we should not be condemned with the world. (1 Corinthians 11:31-32)
The only reason I see for this objection is an unwillingness to follow Christ. Scripture clearly says Jesus promised to build His church upon Peter as the foundation. The behavior of individual members of His church is not an excuse to disobey God.
Wrong in all three statements. It is obedience to Christ that should make one unwilling to be part of a church which, in addition to being substantially missing from and contrary to the NT church in teachings, has for decades has and does treat even proabortion, prosodomite public souls as members in life and in dead, without any real discipline.

But now I have written unto you not to keep company, if any man that is called a brother be a fornicator, or covetous, or an idolater, or a railer, or a drunkard, or an extortioner; with such an one no not to eat. For what have I to do to judge them also that are without? do not ye judge them that are within? But them that are without God judgeth. Therefore put away from among yourselves that wicked person. (1 Corinthians 5:11-13)

In addition, rather than the Lord Jesus promising to build His church upon Peter as the foundation, in contrast, The verse at issue, Mt. 16:18, cannot be divorced from that which preceded it, in which the identity of Jesus Christ is the main subject. In the next verse (17) that is what Jesus refers to in telling blessed Peter that “flesh and blood hath not revealed it unto thee,” and in v. 18 that truth is what the “this rock” refers to, with a distinction being made between the person of Peter and this rock.

This is the only interpretation that is confirmed, as it must be, in the rest of the New Testament. For in contrast to Peter, that the LORD Jesus is the Rock (“petra”) or "stone" (“lithos,” and which denotes a large rock in Mk. 16:4) upon which the church is built is one of the most abundantly confirmed doctrines in the Bible (petra: Rm. 9:33; 1Cor. 10:4; 1Pet. 2:8; cf. Lk. 6:48; 1Cor. 3:11; lithos: Mat. 21:42; Mk.12:10-11; Lk. 20:17-18; Act. 4:11; Rm. 9:33; Eph. 2:20; cf. Dt. 32:4, Is. 28:16) including by Peter himself. (1Pt. 2:4-8) Rome's current catechism attempts to have Peter himself as the rock as well, but also affirms: “On the rock of this faith confessed by St Peter, Christ build his Church,” (pt. 1, sec. 2, cp. 2, para. 424) which understanding some of the ancients concur with.

And finally, the behavior of individual members of His church is indeed not an excuse to disobey God in failing to separate from such impenitent gross violators, and from a church in which such abounds and that fails to exercise Biblical discipline, as commanded.

Be ye not unequally yoked together with unbelievers: for what fellowship hath righteousness with unrighteousness? and what communion hath light with darkness? And what concord hath Christ with Belial? or what part hath he that believeth with an infidel? And what agreement hath the temple of God with idols? for ye are the temple of the living God; as God hath said, I will dwell in them, and walk in them; and I will be their God, and they shall be my people. (2 Corinthians 6:14-16)
I might reply to your other posts later if I have time but I don't see the value in continuing discussion. I think you would learn more by reading some good books that can explain the basics of the Christian faith and other church teaching.
Your continued recourse to this vain charge, in contrast to what has been substantiated from Catholicism and refuted, is an admission of defeat.
 
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PeaceByJesus

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PeaceByJesus said: ↑

What?! If you dared examine the context of passages being commented on as on Galatians 5:21 you could see that it is far from "completely ambiguous!" Do i need to posts even larger responses?
"...they that do such works of the flesh as before enumerated; that is, that live in the commission of these things, whose whole lives are employed in such work, living and dying in such a state, without repentance towards God and faith in Christ, shall never enjoy eternal life..." (Gill on Galatians 5:21)

Continued - Part 2
The Protestants I informed of this passage on these forums all rejected it. ..As long as they only cheat on their spouse on Friday's and Saturday's and are faithful the other 5 days of the week they aren't living constantly in sin so they're still saved is their reasoning.
Show me where all rejected it. If you cannot then what believe you?
Many Protestants sects are Baptist or non-denominational where pastors are free to interpret the bible however they please.
As can many Catholic priests.
A 2002 nationwide poll of 1,854 priests in the United States and Puerto Rico reported that 30% of Roman Catholic priests described themselves as Liberal, 28% as Conservative, and 37% as Moderate in their Religious ideology. 53 percent responded that they thought it always was a sin for unmarried people to have sexual relations; 32 percent that is often was, and 9 percent seldom/never. - Los Angeles Times (extensive) nationwide survey (2002). http://www.bishop-accountability.org/resources/resource-files/reports/LAT-Priest-Survey.pdf http://findarticles.com/p/articles/mi_m1141/is_2_39/ai_94129129/pg_2

But for you only Prot pastors count, yet a theologically or morally liberal soul can easily find a home in Rome versus in a conservative evangelical church, which movement arose because of unity in core Truths.
But I could provide hundreds of quotes but based on past experience with Protestants I doubt you'd listen to any of them so I won't waste my time again.
They are basically irrelevant as you are defending tradition-based churches, both of which claim to be the one True church, while do not defend all Protestantism, and which broad scope you depend upon for your charges, but i do point to those who most strongly esteem Scripture as the wholly inspired and accurate word of God (vs. Roman scholarship, most of which is liberal), and who testify to greater basic unity and commitment.
The good fruit on the Catholic and Orthodox churches draws me to them. If someone claiming to be a member of one of those churches is pro-sodomy that is a bad fruit of that individual and not relevant to the good fruit of the church.
You mean you would be drawn to a team that has some good aspects despite its broad inclusion of players who do not play by the rules, and which fails to discipline them, making such your teammates, yet which claims to be the One True Team.
Not begging the question at all. Just basic logic.
The presupposition that "Jesus founded the Catholic Church" is just that, and is false as being established.
If Jesus' church condemns sodomy it doesn't matter if every single individual who sits at that church is pro-sodomy. It still won't change the fact that Jesus' church condemns it for all to see and follow.
Wrong again as explained. It remains that what you officially profess is not the Scriptural basis for what such truly believes and condemns or commends, but what they do (or fail to) and overall produce. Despite your absurd attempt to allow this criteria for individuals but not for a formal body.

Irrelevant. None of that changes the church's teaching.
You dismissal is inadmissible, as church's teaching does not simply consist in what it officially espouses. For the kingdom of God is not in word, but in power. (1 Corinthians 4:20)

Ratzinger tells us what the church of Rome had become in effect due to moral degradation and division:

"For nearly half a century, the Church was split into two or three obediences that excommunicated one another, so that every Catholic lived under excommunication by one pope or another, and, in the last analysis, no one could say with certainty which of the contenders had right on his side. The Church no longer offered certainty of salvation; she had become questionable in her whole objective form--the true Church, the true pledge of salvation, had to be sought outside the institution.

"It is against this background of a profoundly shaken ecclesial consciousness that we are to understand that Luther, in the conflict between his search for salvation and the tradition of the Church, ultimately came to experience the Church, not as the guarantor, but as the adversary of salvation. (Joseph Cardinal Ratzinger, head of the Sacred Congregation of the Doctrine of the Faith for the Church of Rome, “Principles of Catholic Theology,” (San Francisco: Ignatius, 1989) p.196)
Since faith is belief it can't effect obedience toward anyone or anything. A person who believes must choose whether to act differently based on his belief.
Which is an absurd contradiction. If a person acts due to what he/she believes, then the cause behind the effect is what they believe. If you really believe that your GPS device is accurate then you would trust and obey it to get someplace you wanted to go to in a strange land, unless you believed an alternative was worth the risk, or would result in the same.
If you want to define faith as only including people who act a certain way that's fine as the bible does too but then it's no longer faith alone anymore and no different than what the catholic church teaches.
Illogical as i am not defining faith as people, but defining effectual faith as being what effects what people do, and thus people of faith act according to what faith in the Lord Jesus means.

This in no way is contrary to sola fide, as this refers to what actually appropriates justification before God, that faith is alone instrument of justification; yet it is not alone in the person justified, but is ever accompanied with all other saving graces, and is no dead faith, but works by love. [Westminster Confession of Faith, CHAPTER XI.
Protestants often get confused because faith has two different definitions in scripture. One definition is a firm intellectual assent to the truth. It means firmly believing what Jesus taught.
The confusion is on your part, as i already stated that "We are speaking here of Biblical, saving faith."
Some who believe choose to repent (turn from sin) and live for God. Others who don't won't be saved because faith alone is not enough.
Wrong, they will not be saved because they do not have Biblical saving faith! You allege not knowing Cath doctrine but employ a perverse idea of SS.
The second definition is similar to faithfulness and refers to those who faithfully follow Jesus after firmly assenting to what he taught. Using that definition, you could technically say a person is saved by faith alone but it would be very misleading and confusing because it's no different than being justified by works along with faith using the first definition.
Once again, their is a vast difference btwn the heart being purified, (Acts 15:9) and many accounted righteous, (Rm. 4:5) and saved (Eph. 2:8,9) by Biblical, saving faith which effects works of faith, versus making the effect the cause of justification. Works can be the basis for justifying a man as having true faith, verifying, fulfilling the declaration that he had by faith that he was righteousness, (Ja. 2:23) but the effect is not the instrument means of justification.

How man is essentially justified in conversion is the means of his justified state in the end, but it must be a faith that effects obedience, and which God rewards in grace.

.. Luther manifestly makes that distinction.
if you continue in pride and lewdness, in greed and anger, and yet talk much of faith, St. Paul will come and say, 1 Cor. 4:20, look here my dear Sir, "the kingdom of God is not in word but in power." It requires life and action, and is not brought about by mere talk.” [Sermons of Martin Luther 2.2:341-342]

Another way of saying that is a person is justified by works and not by faith alone which is what scripture and the catholic church teaches.
But before you asserted that "If two believers have the same beliefs but one obeys and the other doesn't then Luther would say one is a true believer and the other isn't even though there isn't any difference in their beliefs."

But now you have substantially reconciled Catholicism with Luther. Must have been one big misunderstanding on their part, not yours.

if obedience and God’s commandments do not dominate you, then the work is not right, but damnable, surely the devil’s own doings, although it were even so great a work as to raise the dead. [Sermons of Martin Luther 1:244]
Sounds like a rejection of faith alone.
Because of your ignorance of such, and reliance upon your obviously very limited contact with Bible Christians instead, while resorting to charges of ignorance of Cath teaching despite me being the one usually providing it.

How? By the very evidence of what it effects! If you value the use of your PC then you will not click on some suspicious attachment, unless you believe that what it contains is worth the risk.
Not necessarily since some people are very curious or have a compulsion that makes it hard to resist the temptation.
Obviously brief analogies can be incomplete and which you need in order to object, but which still refutes the idea of inert salvific faith, as in such a case a person believes the deception of the temptation. Eve believed the "share the wealth" lie of the devil.

And as far a what one's god is, a person who believes money will buy him happiness will order his life accordingly.
Not always. If he's lazy, he may not work to get money despite believing it will buy him happiness.
Regardless of work then he will order his life accordingly in order to obtain what he seeks, if he really believes the effort is worth it.
Yet the only thing that distinguishes "saving faith" from non-saving faith is whether a person chooses to work.
Close enough, though works must be motivated by faith in the Lord Jesus, seeking to please Him. But the effect is not what is counted for righteousness, but faith.
I agree with James 2:17. It you have faith but choose not to work then your God-given faith won't save you
Wrong and actually blasphemous. If such faith is God-given but does not motivate obedience towards it Object than it is not a "good and perfect gift" as James describes gifts from God, and as what one really believes is what is behind what man does or fails to do, then you make God the author of sin by giving man an inert faith.

Man can choose not to do what corresponds to faith in the Lord Jesus, or be ignorant of His will, but such will still act according to what he really believes, at least at the moment.
"and you are spiritually dead because justification is not by faith alone. Yet the person who is spiritually dead still has faith. "
Justification is not by faith that remains alone, and otherwise you deny justification to converts before they do any actually works, and or deny that Abraham was justified by imputed faith long before he offered up Issac by faith.
All that shows is a person with faith can choose to deny the faith.
At which point he has no real saving faith. Or do you want to argue that one can deny Biblical saving faith and yet still have it?

Of course, if Luther wrote the latter you would say he was being too ambiguous.
Wrong again. Another unrighteous judgment.
Really? Based on what evidence, contrary to what you have already done, then when contradicted by Luther's own statement, you confirm Luther is teaching the faith effects works.
I proved they are identical. Looks like you were unable to see it.
Rather, it looks like you are unable to see the contradiction.

because in the case of Luther he is manifestly referring an objective standard for saving faith, and thus a true believer, and which (following your analogy) identifies a true Scotman as one who does not put sugar on his porridge, and in reality defines what good works which faith effects are!
It's still identical. The true believer, like the true Scotsman, is defined based on whether someone agrees with his actions.
Wrong as before, as shown, for rather because rather than the true Scotsman who is defined based on whether someone agrees with his actions apart from an objective standard, here in the case of Luther he is manifestly referring an objective standard for saving faith.

Your absurd irrational contortionist attempts to make your case against Protestantism while excusing Catholicism marginalizes you as one unfit for attempts at meaningful and civil debate!
Another unrighteous judgment. Your frequent false judgments, lack of knowledge of Catholicism, and poor logical reasoning skills tell me it's impossible to have a meaningful discussion with you. Let me know when you are willing to humble yourself and learn and I may be able to help.
Your desperate recourse to the same unsubstantiated bombast, and absurd reasoning which is manifest for all to see, tells me it's impossible to have a meaningful discussion with you. Let me know when you are willing to humble yourself and learn and I may be able to help.[/QUOTE]
 
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PeaceByJesus

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You misunderstood again. I firmly believe everyone, without any exception whatsoever, must be born again. Baptism by water is the normal means God uses to give this new birth but God can use other means for those willing but unable to get baptized by water.
Which means that God granted this to those in Acts 10 who were plainly told that forgiveness of sins was obtained by believing, because they were unable to get baptized by water.
Typical. If you don't like what scripture teaches just change the words. I don't call that following scripture. It tells me your tradition comes first.
A vain attempt at rebuttal. Scripture was not written in English, and if examination of original language is changing the words then RCs and some other translations are guilty.

Tertullian believed in infant baptism. If you read his Treatise on Baptism for yourself instead of relying on biased and deceitful scholars to tell you what he taught then you would know Tertullian believed in infant baptism.
What? I read it myself from the Catholic Encyclopedia, as sourced, and it is you who chose a slightly different translation, yet in which in context it is clearly arguing against infant baptism as as norm, which is why it was invoked. Sorry for now making that clear, as your inference was unreserved unanimous Catholic consent of infant baptism , which you simply cannot claim based upon very ECFs, and omitted the weighty objections of Tertullian, which support believers baptism, even if not rejecting baptism regeneration.

But they whose office it is, know that baptism is not rashly to be administered. "Give to every one who begs you," has a reference of its own, appertaining especially to almsgiving. On the contrary, this precept is rather to be looked at carefully: "Give not the holy thing to the dogs, nor cast your pearls before swine;" Matthew 7:6 and, "Lay not hands easily on any; share not other men's sins." If Philip so "easily" baptized the chamberlain, let us reflect that a manifest and conspicuous evidence that the Lord deemed him worthy had been interposed. Acts 8:26-40 The Spirit had enjoined Philip to proceed to that road: the eunuch himself, too, was not found idle, nor as one who was suddenly seized with an eager desire to be baptized; but, after going up to the temple for prayer's sake, being intently engaged on the divine Scripture, was thus suitably discovered— to whom God had, unasked, sent an apostle, which one, again, the Spirit bade adjoin himself to the chamberlain's chariot. The Scripture which he was reading falls in opportunely with his faith: Philip, being requested, is taken to sit beside him; the Lord is pointed out; faith lingers not; water needs no waiting for; the work is completed, and the apostle snatched away. "But Paul too was, in fact, 'speedily' baptized:" for Simon, his host, speedily recognized him to be "an appointed vessel of election." God's approbation sends sure premonitory tokens before it; every "petition" may both deceive and be deceived

And so, according to the circumstances and disposition, and even age, of each individual, the delay of baptism is preferable; principally, however, in the case of little children. For why is it necessary— if (baptism itself) is not so necessary — that the sponsors likewise should be thrust into danger? Who both themselves, by reason of mortality, may fail to fulfil their promises, and may be disappointed by the development of an evil disposition, in those for whom they stood? The Lord does indeed say, "Forbid them not to come unto me."

Let them "come," then, while they are growing up; let them "come" while they are learning, while they are learning whither to come; let them become Christians when they have become able to know Christ. Why does the innocent period of life hasten to the "remission of sins?" More caution will be exercised in worldly matters: so that one who is not trusted with earthly substance is trusted with divine! Let them know how to "ask" for salvation, that you may seem (at least) to have given "to him that asks."

For no less cause must the unwedded also be deferred— in whom the ground of temptation is prepared, alike in such as never were wedded by means of their maturity, and in the widowed by means of their freedom— until they either marry, or else be more fully strengthened for continence. If any understand the weighty import of baptism, they will fear its reception more than its delay: sound faith is secure of salvation.
The following two quotes from Ch. 18 of his treatise proves it along with an explanation for those who struggle with logic and reading comprehension:...

"Why, indeed, is it necessary -- if it be not a case of necessity -"...

Expressing the opinion that it may be better to delay baptism when it's not a case of necessity shows Tertullian believed infants should be baptized in cases of necessity which proves he believed in infant baptism. Even when it's not a necessity, saying it "may be better" to delay shows he believed in infant baptism for everyone.

This quote from Tertullian is crystal clear. Saying let them become Christians when they are older proves Tertullian believed that infant baptism made infants Christians. His question about hastening to the remission of sins shows he believed infant baptism remits sin.

Despite all your bluster about logic and reading comprehension, the point is that Tertullian clearly argued against infant baptism, even if allowing it in case of necessity (and which your translation of "Why, indeed, is it necessary -- if it be not a case of necessity" versus "For why is it necessary— if (baptism itself) is not so necessary" better supports).
I've discussed this before and so far not one Protestant was able to find any ECFs who didn't believe in infant baptism. Would you like to try again?
No doubt, with statements from about 6 from over 100 ECFs to examine from, even if not wholly without reservations.

Yet none of whom, or the billions of Catholics since, could find one manifest example of any infant baptism in the life of the NT church in Scripture, despite all the thousands of converts and the critical importance Catholicism placed upon it, and contrary to the stated requirement of wholehearted repentant faith.

So perhaps you can find what the Holy Spirit could not, or did not consider notable or important enough to mention, while being careful to record women and Gentiles being baptized.
 
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PeaceByJesus

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This was not written to Christians, since Jesus never spoke a word to Christians during his time on earth. It is directed at Palestinian Jews.

After Christ died and was resurrected Christians became a part of his body. There is no more "vine and branches" regarding believers, and nobody will be pruned from the body of Jesus Christ. God will not amputate any part of his son.

I have said this a million times: before you take something from the Bible out of context you must first know to whom it was written, when it was written, and why it was written.
That is absurd, sorry to say. Once you relegate the gospel of John to merely applying to Palestinian Jews then there is no stopping.
 
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PeaceByJesus

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Gosh, can't you even realize I was speaking of the Christian Church???Is that why Peter is always mentioned first among the apostles,
He is not:
And when James, Cephas, and John, who seemed to be pillars, perceived the grace that was given unto me, they gave to me and Barnabas the right hands of fellowship; that we should go unto the heathen, and they unto the circumcision. (Galatians 2:9)
" "Peter and the other apostles"? "
Mentioned twice, yet street-level leadership among the brethren, over whom he is never shown asserting authority, simply does not translate into the church looking to the first of a line of infallible popes reigning in Rome.
"or as Is that why they he was the one who convened the Council of Jerusalem in Acts 15?
Scripture nowhere says or infers this. Why make up things or repeat RC propaganda?

"When therefore Paul and Barnabas had no small dissension and disputation with them, they determined that Paul and Barnabas, and certain other of them, should go up to Jerusalem unto the apostles and elders about this question." (Acts 15:2)

And when they were come to Jerusalem, they were received of the church, and of the apostles and elders, and they declared all things that God had done with them...And the apostles and elders came together for to consider of this matter. (Acts 15:4,6)
Peter is not mentioned by name until after, giving his testimony of how God chose him to preach (like an evangelical) to the Gentiles that they "should hear the word of the gospel, and believe," and how God purified their hearts by faith. Which washing of regeneration was before baptism.

After this, and the confirmatory testimony of Paul and Barnabas, it is James who takes the floor and provides the definitive, Scripture-supported judgment as to what should be done, to which all the church concurred.
Is that why Jesus told Peter, specifically that "Satan has desired to sift all of you like wheat, but I have prayed that your own faith may not fail; and once you have turned back, you must strengthen your brothers."? Is that why He told him "Feed my sheep"?
Actually the text does not say "sift all of you" but that "Satan hath desired you, that he may sift as wheat," yet once again, Peter as the street-level leaders among the brethren simply does not translate into the perpetuated Petrine papacy of Rome.
Regarding Peter being flawed and erratic, so what? All the apostles were flawed and erratic. Judas betrayed Him, Peter denied Him, Thomas doubted Him, James and John wanted positions of favor with Him, all of them fled at His crucifixion.
Yet, giving a prime opportunity to describe Peter as a type of Roman pope, as a supreme leader, the apostle Paul, whose apostleship was much challenged (2Cor) and thus the faith of his disciples, rather than giving any real support to such places him after James and before John in naming men who appeared to be pillars. And disparages looking up to such as some sort of sure judges, saying "But of these who seemed to be somewhat, (whatsoever they were, it maketh no matter to me: God accepteth no man's person:) for they who seemed to be somewhat in conference added nothing to me." (Galatians 2:6),

And proceeds to detail the public failure and rebuke of Peter in acting contrary to doctrine, the only apostle ever recorded as doing so in the life of the NT church.

Nor is submission to, or remembrance of, or regular prayers specifically for Peter ever enjoined or exhorted in any letter to the churches, nor commended, even in the Lord's critique of the 7 representative churches in Asia.

Nor is there any manifest apostolic successors being voted for after Matthias was chosen for Judas (even though James was martyred: Acts 12:1,2), which was in order to maintain the foundational number of apostles (cf. Rv. 21:14) and which was by the non-political Scriptural means of casting lots. (cf. Prov. 16:33)
No, the teaching of infallible men. Prevented from teaching error by the Holy Spirit. I trust the Holy Spirit, apparently, you do not."
A logical fallacy, for not finding warrant for the novel and unScriptural premise of ensured perpetual magisterial infallibility does not equate to not trusting the Holy Spirit, for the issue as not whether He could, but that He has promised this, and uniquely to the church of Rome. Which is simply not taught, despite erroneous Cath extrapolations.
 
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PeaceByJesus

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No Roman pope (versus Peter) or council spoke as wholly inspired of God.
You're completely wrong.
A bare assertion. Citation needed. Provide RC teaching that when popes speak infallibly then they are wholly inspired of God, as Scripture is. Or admit this is simply personal belief.
 
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PeaceByJesus

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I already told you that. I guess you don't know that. See here. (1Cor. 3:8ff; 4:5; 2Tim. 4:1,8; Rev.11:18; Mt. 25:31-46; 1Pt. 1:7; 5:4)
But you're interpretation is wrong. I guess you don't know that.
Another bare assertion. Prove it. You cannot, and your attempt to show that 1Co. 3 refers to judgment at death is contrary to what Scripture does teach:
I've given the arguments, but you're too brainwashed to believe them.
Another bare assertion. Prove it.
"When we die, we undergo what is called the particular, or individual, judgment. Scripture says that "it is appointed for men to die once, and after that comes judgment" (Heb. 9:27). We are judged instantly and receive our reward, for good or ill."
Wrong as regards the particular judgment, which is obviously what 1Co. 3 i s about. In addition, Heb. 9:27 is actually missing "the," but while the lost such as the rich man in Lk. 16:9ff go to Hell since they died in their sins, they are not actually sentenced until the Great White Throne judgment of Rv. 20, and which occurs after the Lord's return (and actually 1,000 years after the "first resurrection," the elect, but even if you reject this millennial reign it is still is after the Lord's return).

Likewise although the spirits of the elect go to be with the Lord at death, (Lk. 23:43 [cf. 2Cor. 12:4; Rv. 2:7]; Phil 1:23; 2Cor. 5:8 [“we”]; 1Cor. 15:51ff; 1Thess. 4:17) they do not receive their specific rewards until the judgment seat of Christ at/after the Lord's return.

Now he that planteth and he that watereth are one: and every man shall receive his own reward according to his own labour. (1 Corinthians 3:8)

Every man's work shall be made manifest: for the day shall declare it, because it shall be revealed by fire; and the fire shall try every man's work of what sort it is. (1 Corinthians 3:13)

But why dost thou judge thy brother? or why dost thou set at nought thy brother? for we shall all stand before the judgment seat of Christ. (Romans 14:10)

For we must all appear before the judgment seat of Christ; that every one may receive the things done in his body, according to that he hath done, whether it be good or bad. (2 Corinthians 5:10)

Therefore judge nothing before the time, until the Lord come, who both will bring to light the hidden things of darkness, and will make manifest the counsels of the hearts: and then shall every man have praise of God. (1 Corinthians 4:5)

And when the chief Shepherd shall appear, ye shall receive a crown of glory that fadeth not away. (1 Peter 5:4)

For what is our hope, or joy, or crown of rejoicing? Are not even ye in the presence of our Lord Jesus Christ at his coming? (1 Thessalonians 2:19)

Henceforth there is laid up for me a crown of righteousness, which the Lord, the righteous judge, shall give me at that day: and not to me only, but unto all them also that love his appearing. (2 Timothy 4:8)

For the Son of man shall come in the glory of his Father with his angels; and then he shall reward every man according to his works. (Matthew 16:27)

And the nations were angry, and thy wrath is come, and the time of the dead, that they should be judged, and that thou shouldest give reward unto thy servants the prophets, and to the saints, and them that fear thy name, small and great; and shouldest destroy them which destroy the earth. (Revelation 11:18)

When the Son of man shall come in his glory, and all the holy angels with him, then shall he sit upon the throne of his glory: And before him shall be gathered all nations: and he shall separate them one from another, as a shepherd divideth his sheep from the goats: (Matthew 25:31-32)

And shall come forth; they that have done good, unto the resurrection of life; and they that have done evil, unto the resurrection of damnation. (John 5:29)

But the rest of the dead lived not again until the thousand years were finished. This is the first resurrection. Blessed and holy is he that hath part in the first resurrection: on such the second death hath no power, but they shall be priests of God and of Christ, and shall reign with him a thousand years. (Revelation 20:5-6)
" At the end of time, when Jesus returns, there will come the general judgment to which the Bible refers, for example, in Matthew 25:31-32.
In which time period particular judgment occurs, which is what 1Co. 3 refers to, and nowhere does such detailed rewarding of every man as per his own labor, "for the day shall declare it" refer to what happens at death.

But I guess you didn't 't know that
But you believe that indulgences could be sold or bought.
Citation needed. Where did i say that? But I guess you don't know that
Not when you count the footnotes.
Yes, including foot notes, while counting every character it is still not even close. But I guess you didn't know that
By the way, the KJV is missing a few books. I guess you don't know that, too.
Wrong. The best evidence testifies against them being part of the body of writings the Lord referred to as Scripture.
Augustine said, [/QUOTE
Which is no substitute for what wholly inspired-of-God Scripture says, and does not conflate with it here.
 
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PeaceByJesus

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I agree that Jesus was speaking of "Scripture", but nobody took the time to name the books. That took the inspired men of the Catholic Church to gather and discuss which of the Christian writings were "Scripture" and which were not.
Again, show us from Catholic teaching that popes with or without councils speak as wholly inspired of God. Silence means you cannot.

Then support the inferred premise that being the historical magisterium and discerner and steward of Holy Writ means all else they teach warrants submission to.
 
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PeaceByJesus

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So, you trust the men who wrote the Scriptures, especially the NT. You trust them because they're the authors of the Bible. But you have to know that there was no Canon of Scripture until the Church decided it, and some Christian writings were excluded. These decisions took prayer and the hand of God to decide which books belonged. If the Church had not done that, you would have a lot of Christian writings but no authority to tell you that they were canonical, or not.
A logical fallacy, as you are confusing the conciliar ratification of a general consensus with needing an authority to know which books were of God. Which was not even how the very writings and men of God the NT church relied upon came to be accepted as authoritative in the first place.

Give it up. This discernment/stewardship=infallible authority will not work.
 
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PeaceByJesus

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Note: For their opinion...
Altaner, the patrologist from Wurzburg…had proven in a scientifically persuasive manner that the doctrine of Mary’s bodily Assumption into heaven was unknown before the 5C; this doctrine, therefore, he argued, could not belong to the “apostolic tradition. And this was his conclusion, which my teachers at Munich shared.- J. Ratzinger, Milestones (Ignatius, n.d.), 58-59 .

And yet, the doctrine was approved. Because it does not contradict Scripture, and was believed prior to the 5th Century
But Rome can claim to "remember" what contemporary an early history "forgot" to record, and this novel and unScriptural premise of ensured perpetual magisterial infallibility is the basis for RC assurance:

The mere fact that the Church teaches the doctrine of the Assumption as definitely true is a guarantee that it is true.” — Karl Keating, Catholicism and Fundamentalism (San Francisco: Ignatius, 1988), p. 275.

The Assumption is the oldest feast day of Our Lady, but we don't know how it first came to be celebrated.

Its origin is lost in those days when Jerusalem was restored as a sacred city, at the time of the Roman Emperor Constantine (c. 285-337). By then it had been a pagan city for two centuries, ever since Emperor Hadrian (76-138) had leveled it around the year 135 and rebuilt it as <Aelia Capitolina> in honor of Jupiter.

For 200 years, every memory of Jesus was obliterated from the city, and the sites made holy by His life, death and Resurrection became pagan temples.

After the building of the Church of the Holy Sepulchre in 336, the sacred sites began to be restored and memories of the life of Our Lord began to be celebrated by the people of Jerusalem. One of the memories about his mother centered around the "Tomb of Mary," close to Mount Zion, where the early Christian community had lived.

On the hill itself was the "Place of Dormition," the spot of Mary's "falling asleep," where she had died. The "Tomb of Mary" was where she was buried.

At this time, the "Memory of Mary" was being celebrated. Later it was to become our feast of the Assumption.

For a time, the "Memory of Mary" was marked only in Palestine, but then it was extended by the emperor to all the churches of the East. In the seventh century, it began to be celebrated in Rome under the title of the "Falling Asleep" ("Dormitio") of the Mother of God.

Soon the name was changed to the "Assumption of Mary," since there was more to the feast than her dying. It also proclaimed that she had been taken up, body and soul, into heaven.

That belief was ancient, dating back to the apostles themselves. What was clear from the beginning was that there were no relics of Mary to be venerated, and that an empty tomb stood on the edge of Jerusalem near the site of her death. That location also soon became a place of pilgrimage. (Today, the Benedictine Abbey of the Dormition of Mary stands on the spot.)

At the Council of Chalcedon in 451, when bishops from throughout the Mediterranean world gathered in Constantinople, Emperor Marcian asked the Patriarch of Jerusalem to bring the relics of Mary to Constantinople to be enshrined in the capitol. The patriarch explained to the emperor that there were no relics of Mary in Jerusalem, that "Mary had died in the presence of the apostles; but her tomb, when opened later . . . was found empty and so the apostles concluded that the body was taken up into heaven."

In the eighth century, St. John Damascene was known for giving sermons at the holy places in Jerusalem. At the Tomb of Mary, he expressed the belief of the Church on the meaning of the feast: "Although the body was duly buried, it did not remain in the state of death, neither was it dissolved by decay. . . . You were transferred to your heavenly home, O Lady, Queen and Mother of God in truth."
So rather than actual early evidence which is where it should be found, you presume to do better than the church scholars Ratzinger refers to, while all you have are more dubious legends invoked in your pilfered, unattributed article from a priest?

Then lets hear from the other side some of why Cath scholars held that the doctrine of Mary’s bodily Assumption into heaven was unknown before the 5C and could not belong to the “apostolic tradition.

Assumption supporter RC Lawrence P. Everett, C.Ss.R., S.T.D. confessed:

In the first three centuries there are absolutely no references in the authentic works of the Fathers or ecclesiastical writers to the death or bodily immortality of Mary. Nor is there any mention of a tomb of Mary in the first centuries of Christianity. The veneration of the tomb of the Blessed Virgin at Jerusalem began about the middle of the fifth century; and even here there is no agreement as to whether its locality was in the Garden of Olives or in the Valley of Josaphat. Nor is any mention made in the Acts of the Council of Ephesus (431) of the fact that the Council, convened to defend the Divine Maternity of the Mother of God, is being held in the very city selected by God for her final resting place. Only after the Council did the tradition begin which placed her tomb in that city.

The earliest known (non-Apocryphal) mention concerning the end of Mary's life appears in the writings of St. Epiphanius, Bishop of Constantia,.. in his Panarion or Medicine Chest (of remedies for all heresies), written in c. 377: "Whether she died or was buried we know not."

...And with the exception of a so-called contemporary of Epiphanius, Timothy of Jerusalem, who said: "Wherefore the Virgin is immortal up to now, because He who dwelt in her took her to the regions of the Ascension,"9(After a very thorough and scholarly investigation the author concludes that Timothy is an unknown author who lived between the sixth and seventh centuries (p. 23). no early writer ever doubted the fact of her death....

In the Munificentissimus Deus Pope Pius XII quotes but three Fathers of the Church, all Orientals. St. John Damascene (d. 749)...St. Germanus of Constantinople (d. 733) ...St. Modestus of Jerusalem (d. 634)...

Apart from the Apocrypha, there is no authentic witness to the Assumption among the Fathers of either the East or the West prior to the end of the fifth century.

The first remote testimony to which Pope Pius XII turns in order to indicate the fact that our present belief in the Assumption of the Blessed Mother was likewise the belief of the Church from the earliest times is the Sacred Liturgy...

...The feast of the Assumption began in the East as did many of the older Marian feasts... However, due to the fact that neither Sacred Scripture nor early Tradition speaks explicitly of the last days of our Blessed Mother on earth and of her Assumption into heaven, the liturgy of this feast did not mention them either. Later, when the apocryphal Transitus Mariae ” in which the death and Assumption of Mary are described in detail ” became popular among the faithful, the facts of her death and Assumption were inserted into the feast... - https://www.catholicculture.org/culture/library/view.cfm?id=469

And William Webster documents,

...the Roman Catholic writer Eamon Duffy concedes that, ˜there is, clearly, no historical evidence whatever for it ...' (Eamon Duffy, What Catholics Believe About Mary (London: Catholic Truth Society, 1989), p. 17).

How then did this teaching come to have such prominence in the Church that eventually led it to be declared an issue of dogma in 1950? The first Church father to affirm explicitly the assumption of Mary in the West was Gregory of Tours in 590 A.D. But the basis for his teaching was not the tradition of the Church but his acceptance of an apocryphal Gospel known as the Transitus Beatae Mariae which we first hear of at the end of the fifth century and which was spuriously attributed to Melito of Sardis. There were many versions of this literature which developed over time and which were found throughout the East and West but they all originated from one source.

[The eminent Mariologist, Juniper Carol, O.F.M.] gives the following historical summary of the Transitus literature:

An intriguing corpus of literature on the final lot of Mary is formed by the apocryphal Transitus Mariae. The genesis of these accounts is shrouded in history's mist. They apparently originated before the close of the fifth century, perhaps in Egypt, perhaps in Syria, in consequence of the stimulus given Marian devotion by the definition of the divine Maternity at Ephesus. The period of proliferation is the sixth century. At least a score of Transitus accounts are extant, in Coptic, Greek, Latin, Syriac, Arabic, Ethiopic, and Armenian. Not all are prototypes, for many are simply variations on more ancient models (Juniper Carol, O.F.M. ed., Mariology, Vol. II (Milwaukee: Bruce, 1957), p. 144).

The first express witness in the West to a genuine assumption comes to us in an apocryphal Gospel, the Transitus Beatae Mariae of Pseudo –Melito' (Juniper Carol, O.F.M. ed., Mariology, Vol. l (Milwaukee: Bruce, 1957), p. 149).
Also,

The account of Pseudo-Melito, like the rest of the Transitus literature, is admittedly valueless as history, as an historical report of Mary's death and corporeal assumption; under that aspect the historian is justified in dismissing it with a critical distaste (Juniper Carol, O.F.M. ed., Mariology, Vol. l (Milwaukee: Bruce, 1957), p. 150).
Also, Roman Catholic theologian, Ludwig Ott, states:

Prior to the seventh and eighth centuries there is complete patristic silence on the doctrine of the Assumption. But gradually, through the influence of numerous forgeries which were believed to be genuine, coupled with the misguided enthusiasm of popular devotion, the doctrine gained a foothold in the Church. The Dictionary of Christian Antiquities gives the following history of the doctrine:...

1)The Liber de Transitu, though classed by Gelasius with the known productions of heretics came to be attributed by one...to Melito, an orthodox bishop of Sardis, in the 2nd century, and by another to St. John the Apostle.

2) A letter suggesting the possibility of the Assumption was written and attributed to St. Jerome (ad Paulam et Eustochium de Assumptione B. Virginis, Op. tom. v. p. 82, Paris, 1706).

3) A treatise to prove it not impossible was composed and attributed to St. Augustine (Op. tom. vi. p. 1142, ed. Migne).

4) Two sermons supporting the belief were written and attributed to St. Athanasius (Op. tom. ii. pp. 393, 416, ed., Ben. Paris, 1698).

5) An insertion was made in Eusebius's Chronicle that ˜in the year 48 Mary the Virgin was taken up into heaven, as some wrote that they had had it revealed to them.' - http://www.christiantruth.com/articles/assumption.html

The church fathers of the earliest centuries repeatedly cite Enoch and Elijah as examples of people who didn't die, were translated to Heaven, etc. (Clement of Rome, First Clement, 9; Tertullian, A Treatise On The Soul, 50; Tertullian, On The Resurrection Of The Flesh, 58; Tertullian, Against Marcion, 5:12; Methodius, From The Discourse On The Resurrection, 14), yet they never say any such thing about Mary or include her as an example. Irenaeus, for instance, writes about the power of God to deliver people from death, and he cites Enoch, Elijah, and Paul (2 Corinthians 12:2) as illustrations of people who were "assumed" and "translated", but he says nothing of Mary (Against Heresies, 5:5). A group of some of the leading Roman Catholic and Lutheran scholars in the world concluded:

"Furthermore, the notion of Mary's assumption into heaven has left no trace in the literature of the third, much less of the second century. M. Jugie, the foremost authority on this question, concluded in his monumental study: 'The patristic tradition prior to the Council of Nicaea does not furnish us with any witness about the Assumption.'" (Raymond Brown, et al., Mary In The New Testament [Mahwah: Paulist Press, 1978], p. 266)

But...history, tradition and Scripture is only what Rome says it is in any conflict, which reasoning no less than Manning resorted to:

It was the charge of the Reformers that the Catholic doctrines were not primitive, and their pretension was to revert to antiquity. But the appeal to antiquity is both a treason and a heresy. It is a treason because it rejects the Divine voice of the Church at this hour, and a heresy because it denies that voice to be Divine... I may say in strict truth that the Church has no antiquity....Primitive and modern are predicates, not of truth, but of ourselves...The only Divine evidence to us of what was primitive is the witness and voice of the Church at this hour. . — Dr. Henry Edward Cardinal Manning, Archbishop of Westminster, The Temporal Mission of the Holy Ghost: Or Reason and Revelation, , pp. 227-228.
 
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PeaceByJesus

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The Bible is only about the first generation of the Church.
That blatant absurdity, ignoring the bulk of Scripture, even if by thoughtlessness -
and which you are not alone as a Cath in asserting - testifies to the typical marginalization of Scripture as a whole by Catholics. The liberal views on Scripture that abound in Catholicism is another problem.
" I do read my Bible, every day. I disagree that the Bible is the only word of God. "
But you cannot point to any RC teaching that post apostolic councils and or popes speak as wholly inspired by God. At best all you can propose for oral Tradition is that RC councils and popes infallibly define aspects of oral tradition as being wholly inspired oral apostolic doctrine (Oral Tradition) like as they decree writings of God as being so.

But then you must show that this requires an infallible magisterium, or that oral tradition is a chosen and comparable means of verifiable transmission, and that all of Oral Tradition was established like as Scripture was.
 
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Root of Jesse

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He is not:
And when James, Cephas, and John, who seemed to be pillars, perceived the grace that was given unto me, they gave to me and Barnabas the right hands of fellowship; that we should go unto the heathen, and they unto the circumcision. (Galatians 2:9)

Mentioned twice, yet street-level leadership among the brethren, over whom he is never shown asserting authority, simply does not translate into the church looking to the first of a line of infallible popes reigning in Rome.

Scripture nowhere says or infers this. Why make up things or repeat RC propaganda?

"When therefore Paul and Barnabas had no small dissension and disputation with them, they determined that Paul and Barnabas, and certain other of them, should go up to Jerusalem unto the apostles and elders about this question." (Acts 15:2)

And when they were come to Jerusalem, they were received of the church, and of the apostles and elders, and they declared all things that God had done with them...And the apostles and elders came together for to consider of this matter. (Acts 15:4,6)
Peter is not mentioned by name until after, giving his testimony of how God chose him to preach (like an evangelical) to the Gentiles that they "should hear the word of the gospel, and believe," and how God purified their hearts by faith. Which washing of regeneration was before baptism.

After this, and the confirmatory testimony of Paul and Barnabas, it is James who takes the floor and provides the definitive, Scripture-supported judgment as to what should be done, to which all the church concurred.

Actually the text does not say "sift all of you" but that "Satan hath desired you, that he may sift as wheat," yet once again, Peter as the street-level leaders among the brethren simply does not translate into the perpetuated Petrine papacy of Rome.

Yet, giving a prime opportunity to describe Peter as a type of Roman pope, as a supreme leader, the apostle Paul, whose apostleship was much challenged (2Cor) and thus the faith of his disciples, rather than giving any real support to such places him after James and before John in naming men who appeared to be pillars. And disparages looking up to such as some sort of sure judges, saying "But of these who seemed to be somewhat, (whatsoever they were, it maketh no matter to me: God accepteth no man's person:) for they who seemed to be somewhat in conference added nothing to me." (Galatians 2:6),

And proceeds to detail the public failure and rebuke of Peter in acting contrary to doctrine, the only apostle ever recorded as doing so in the life of the NT church.

Nor is submission to, or remembrance of, or regular prayers specifically for Peter ever enjoined or exhorted in any letter to the churches, nor commended, even in the Lord's critique of the 7 representative churches in Asia.

Nor is there any manifest apostolic successors being voted for after Matthias was chosen for Judas (even though James was martyred: Acts 12:1,2), which was in order to maintain the foundational number of apostles (cf. Rv. 21:14) and which was by the non-political Scriptural means of casting lots. (cf. Prov. 16:33)

A logical fallacy, for not finding warrant for the novel and unScriptural premise of ensured perpetual magisterial infallibility does not equate to not trusting the Holy Spirit, for the issue as not whether He could, but that He has promised this, and uniquely to the church of Rome. Which is simply not taught, despite erroneous Cath extrapolations.
* Peter's name occurs first in all lists of apostles (see Mt 10:2; Mk 3:16; Lk 6:14; Acts 1:13). Matthew even calls him "the first" (10:2). (Judas Iscariot is invariably mentioned last.)

* Peter is almost without exception named first whenever he appears with anyone else. In one example to the contrary, Galatians 2:9, where he is listed after James and before John, he is clearly preeminent in the entire context (see, for example, Gal 1:18-19; 2:7-8). Taken in context, Paul is in Jerusalem (2:1), the See of James. Protocol, even to this day is for the Bishop of the diocese to be mentioned first before any visitor is mentioned, even for the Pope. Saint Paul is merely following proper protocol in vs 2:9.

* Peter alone among the apostles receives a new name, "Rock," solemnly conferred (Jn 1:42;
Mt 16:18).

* Peter is asked three times by Christ to feed His lambs, is regarded by Jesus as the chief shepherd after himself (Jn 21:15-17), singularly by name, and over the universal Church, even though others have a similar but subordinate role (Acts 20:28; 1 Pt 5:2).

* Peter alone among the apostles is mentioned by name as having been prayed for by Jesus Christ in order that his "faith fail not" (Lk 22:32).

* Peter alone among the apostles is exhorted by Jesus to "strengthen your brethren" (Lk 22:32).

* Peter first confesses Christ's divinity (Mt 16:16).

* Peter alone is told that he has received divine knowledge by a special revelation (Mt 16:17).

* Peter is regarded by the Jews (Acts 4:1-13) as the leader and spokesman of Christianity.

* Peter is regarded by the common people in the same way (Act 2:37-41;5:15).

* Jesus Christ uniquely associates himself and Peter in the miracle of the tribute money
(Mt 17:24-27).

* Christ teaches from Peter's boat, and the miraculous catch of fish follows (Lk 5:1-11) perhaps a metaphor for the pope as a "fisher of men" (Mt 4:19).

* Peter was the first apostle to set out for, and enter, the empty tomb (Lk 24:12; Jn 20:5-6).

* Peter is specified by an angel as the leader and representative of the apostles (Mk 16:7).

* Peter leads the apostles in fishing (Jn 21:2-3,11). The "bark" (boat) of Peter has been regarded by Catholics as a figure of the Church, with Peter at the helm.

* Peter alone casts himself into the sea to come to Jesus (Jn 21:7).

* Peter's words are the first recorded and most important in the Upper Room before Pentecost
(Acts 1:15-22).

* Peter takes the lead in calling for a replacement for Judas (Acts 1:22).

* Peter is the first person to speak (and only one recorded) after Pentecost, so he was the first Christian to "preach the Gospel" in the Church era (Acts 2:14-36).

* Peter works the first miracle of the Church Age, healing a lame man (Acts 3:6-12).

* Peter utters the first anathema (Ananias and Sapphira) emphatically affirmed by God
(Acts 5:2-11).

* Peter's shadow works miracles (Acts 5:15).

* Peter is the first person after Christ to raise the dead (Acts 9:40).

* Cornelius is told by an angel to seek out Peter for instruction in Christianity (Acts 10:1- 6).

* Peter is the first to receive the Gentiles, after a revelation from God (Acts 10:9-48).

* Peter instructs the other apostles on the catholicity (universality) of the Church (Acts 11:5-17).

* Peter is the object of the first divine interposition on behalf of an individual in the Church Age
(an angel delivers him from prison - Acts 12:1-17).

* The whole Church (strongly implied) prays for Peter "without ceasing" when he is imprisoned (Acts 12:5).

* Peter presides over and opens the first council of Christianity, and lays down principles afterward accepted by it (Acts 15:7-11).

* Paul distinguishes the Lord's post-resurrection appearances to Peter from those to other apostles
(1 Cor 15:4-5).

* Peter is often spoken of as distinct among apostles (Mk 1:36; Lk 9:28,32; Acts 2:37; 5:29;
1 Cor 9:5).

* Peter is often spokesman for the other apostles, especially at climactic moments
(Mk 8:29; Mt 18:21; Lk 9:5; 12:41; Jn 6:67).

* Peter's name is always the first listed of the "inner circle" of the disciples
(Peter, James and John - Mt 17:1; 26:37,40; Mk 5:37; 14:37).

* Peter is often the central figure relating to Jesus in dramatic Gospel scenes such as walking on the water (Mt 14:28-32; Lk 5:1, Mk 10:28; Mt 17:24).

* Peter is the first to recognize and refute heresy, in Simon Magus (Acts 8:14-24).

* Peter's name is mentioned more often than all the other disciples put together: 191 times
(162 as Peter or Simon Peter, 23 as Simon and 6 as Cephas).
John is next in frequency with only 48 appearances, and Peter is present 50 percent of the time we find John in the Bible. Archbishop Fulton Sheen reckoned that all the other disciples combined were mentioned 130 times. If this is correct, Peter is named a remarkable 60 percent of the time any disciple is referred to.

* Peter's proclamation at Pentecost (Acts 2:14-41) contains a fully authoritative interpretation of Scripture, a doctrinal decision and a disciplinary decree concerning members of the "House of Israel" - an example of "binding and loosing."

* Peter was the first "charismatic," having judged authoritatively the first instance of the gift of tongues as genuine (Acts 2:14-21).

* Peter is the first to preach Christian repentance and baptism (Acts 2:38).

* Peter (presumably) takes the lead in the first recorded mass baptism (Acts 2:41).

* Peter commanded the first Gentile Christians to be baptized (Act 10:44-48).

* Peter was the first traveling missionary, and first exercised what would now be called "visitation of the churches" (Acts 9:32-38,43). Paul preached at Damascus immediately after his conversion (Acts 9:20), but had not traveled there for that purpose (God changed his plans). His missionary journeys begin in Acts 13:2.

* Paul went to Jerusalem specifically to see Peter for 15 days at the beginning of his ministry (Gal 1:18), and was commissioned by Peter, James and John (Gal 2:9) to preach to the Gentiles.

* Peter acts, by strong implication, as the chief bishop/shepherd of the Church (1 Pet 5:1), since he exhorts all the other bishops, or "elders."

* Peter interprets prophecy (2 Pet 1:16-21).

* Peter corrects those who misuse Paul's writings (2 Pt 3:15-16).

* Peter wrote his first epistle from Rome, as its bishop, and as the universal bishop (pope) of the early Church, according to most scholars. "Babylon" (1 Pet 5:13) is regarded as code for Rome.
 
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Root of Jesse

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I already told you that. I guess you don't know that. See here. (1Cor. 3:8ff; 4:5; 2Tim. 4:1,8; Rev.11:18; Mt. 25:31-46; 1Pt. 1:7; 5:4)

Another bare assertion. Prove it. You cannot, and your attempt to show that 1Co. 3 refers to judgment at death is contrary to what Scripture does teach:

Another bare assertion. Prove it.

Wrong as regards the particular judgment, which is obviously what 1Co. 3 i s about. In addition, Heb. 9:27 is actually missing "the," but while the lost such as the rich man in Lk. 16:9ff go to Hell since they died in their sins, they are not actually sentenced until the Great White Throne judgment of Rv. 20, and which occurs after the Lord's return (and actually 1,000 years after the "first resurrection," the elect, but even if you reject this millennial reign it is still is after the Lord's return).

Likewise although the spirits of the elect go to be with the Lord at death, (Lk. 23:43 [cf. 2Cor. 12:4; Rv. 2:7]; Phil 1:23; 2Cor. 5:8 [“we”]; 1Cor. 15:51ff; 1Thess. 4:17) they do not receive their specific rewards until the judgment seat of Christ at/after the Lord's return.

Now he that planteth and he that watereth are one: and every man shall receive his own reward according to his own labour. (1 Corinthians 3:8)

Every man's work shall be made manifest: for the day shall declare it, because it shall be revealed by fire; and the fire shall try every man's work of what sort it is. (1 Corinthians 3:13)

But why dost thou judge thy brother? or why dost thou set at nought thy brother? for we shall all stand before the judgment seat of Christ. (Romans 14:10)

For we must all appear before the judgment seat of Christ; that every one may receive the things done in his body, according to that he hath done, whether it be good or bad. (2 Corinthians 5:10)

Therefore judge nothing before the time, until the Lord come, who both will bring to light the hidden things of darkness, and will make manifest the counsels of the hearts: and then shall every man have praise of God. (1 Corinthians 4:5)

And when the chief Shepherd shall appear, ye shall receive a crown of glory that fadeth not away. (1 Peter 5:4)

For what is our hope, or joy, or crown of rejoicing? Are not even ye in the presence of our Lord Jesus Christ at his coming? (1 Thessalonians 2:19)

Henceforth there is laid up for me a crown of righteousness, which the Lord, the righteous judge, shall give me at that day: and not to me only, but unto all them also that love his appearing. (2 Timothy 4:8)

For the Son of man shall come in the glory of his Father with his angels; and then he shall reward every man according to his works. (Matthew 16:27)

And the nations were angry, and thy wrath is come, and the time of the dead, that they should be judged, and that thou shouldest give reward unto thy servants the prophets, and to the saints, and them that fear thy name, small and great; and shouldest destroy them which destroy the earth. (Revelation 11:18)

When the Son of man shall come in his glory, and all the holy angels with him, then shall he sit upon the throne of his glory: And before him shall be gathered all nations: and he shall separate them one from another, as a shepherd divideth his sheep from the goats: (Matthew 25:31-32)

And shall come forth; they that have done good, unto the resurrection of life; and they that have done evil, unto the resurrection of damnation. (John 5:29)

But the rest of the dead lived not again until the thousand years were finished. This is the first resurrection. Blessed and holy is he that hath part in the first resurrection: on such the second death hath no power, but they shall be priests of God and of Christ, and shall reign with him a thousand years. (Revelation 20:5-6)
All of your interpretations are a new innovation, 1500 years, at least, removed from the death of Our Lord. Therefore, your interpretation, lacking any authority, are not valid, except to you. This is why the Protestant Reformation is said to have fractured Christianity, because it relies on individual interpretation, which goes far afield. Even some Catholics use this, and go off the rails.
 
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Root of Jesse

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Again, show us from Catholic teaching that popes with or without councils speak as wholly inspired of God. Silence means you cannot.

Then support the inferred premise that being the historical magisterium and discerner and steward of Holy Writ means all else they teach warrants submission to.
Regarding the last, that's not what I said...

Regarding the first,
Infallibility belongs in a special way to the pope as head of the bishops (Matt. 16:17–19; John 21:15–17). As Vatican II remarked, it is a charism the pope "enjoys in virtue of his office, when, as the supreme shepherd and teacher of all the faithful, who confirms his brethren in their faith (Luke 22:32), he proclaims by a definitive act some doctrine of faith or morals. Therefore his definitions, of themselves, and not from the consent of the Church, are justly held irreformable, for they are pronounced with the assistance of the Holy Spirit, an assistance promised to him in blessed Peter."

The infallibility of the pope is not a doctrine that suddenly appeared in Church teaching; rather, it is a doctrine which was implicit in the early Church. It is only our understanding of infallibility which has developed and been more clearly understood over time. In fact, the doctrine of infallibility is implicit in these Petrine texts: John 21:15–17 ("Feed my sheep . . . "), Luke 22:32 ("I have prayed for you that your faith may not fail"), and Matthew 16:18 ("You are Peter . . . ").

Christ instructed the Church to preach everything he taught (Matt. 28:19–20) and promised the protection of the Holy Spirit to "guide you into all the truth" (John 16:13). That mandate and that promise guarantee the Church will never fall away from his teachings (Matt. 16:18, 1 Tim. 3:15), even if individual Catholics might.

As Christians began to more clearly understand the teaching authority of the Church and of the primacy of the pope, they developed a clearer understanding of the pope’s infallibility. This development of the faithful’s understanding has its clear beginnings in the early Church. For example, Cyprian of Carthage, writing about 256, put the question this way, "Would the heretics dare to come to the very seat of Peter whence apostolic faith is derived and whither no errors can come?" (Letters 59 [55], 14). In the fifth century, Augustine succinctly captured the ancient attitude when he remarked, "Rome has spoken; the case is concluded" (Sermons 131, 10).
 
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Root of Jesse

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A logical fallacy, as you are confusing the conciliar ratification of a general consensus with needing an authority to know which books were of God. Which was not even how the very writings and men of God the NT church relied upon came to be accepted as authoritative in the first place.

Give it up. This discernment/stewardship=infallible authority will not work.
But it has worked, in the Catholic Church, for more than 2000 years. I once had an interviewer ask me how I did something, and when I told him, he said "That won't work." Trouble is, it did, and does work.
 
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Root of Jesse

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So rather than actual early evidence which is where it should be found, you presume to do better than the church scholars Ratzinger refers to, while all you have are more dubious legends invoked in your pilfered, unattributed article from a priest?

Then lets hear from the other side some of why Cath scholars held that the doctrine of Mary’s bodily Assumption into heaven was unknown before the 5C and could not belong to the “apostolic tradition.

Assumption supporter RC Lawrence P. Everett, C.Ss.R., S.T.D. confessed:

In the first three centuries there are absolutely no references in the authentic works of the Fathers or ecclesiastical writers to the death or bodily immortality of Mary. Nor is there any mention of a tomb of Mary in the first centuries of Christianity. The veneration of the tomb of the Blessed Virgin at Jerusalem began about the middle of the fifth century; and even here there is no agreement as to whether its locality was in the Garden of Olives or in the Valley of Josaphat. Nor is any mention made in the Acts of the Council of Ephesus (431) of the fact that the Council, convened to defend the Divine Maternity of the Mother of God, is being held in the very city selected by God for her final resting place. Only after the Council did the tradition begin which placed her tomb in that city.

The earliest known (non-Apocryphal) mention concerning the end of Mary's life appears in the writings of St. Epiphanius, Bishop of Constantia,.. in his Panarion or Medicine Chest (of remedies for all heresies), written in c. 377: "Whether she died or was buried we know not."

...And with the exception of a so-called contemporary of Epiphanius, Timothy of Jerusalem, who said: "Wherefore the Virgin is immortal up to now, because He who dwelt in her took her to the regions of the Ascension,"9(After a very thorough and scholarly investigation the author concludes that Timothy is an unknown author who lived between the sixth and seventh centuries (p. 23). no early writer ever doubted the fact of her death....

In the Munificentissimus Deus Pope Pius XII quotes but three Fathers of the Church, all Orientals. St. John Damascene (d. 749)...St. Germanus of Constantinople (d. 733) ...St. Modestus of Jerusalem (d. 634)...

Apart from the Apocrypha, there is no authentic witness to the Assumption among the Fathers of either the East or the West prior to the end of the fifth century.

The first remote testimony to which Pope Pius XII turns in order to indicate the fact that our present belief in the Assumption of the Blessed Mother was likewise the belief of the Church from the earliest times is the Sacred Liturgy...

...The feast of the Assumption began in the East as did many of the older Marian feasts... However, due to the fact that neither Sacred Scripture nor early Tradition speaks explicitly of the last days of our Blessed Mother on earth and of her Assumption into heaven, the liturgy of this feast did not mention them either. Later, when the apocryphal Transitus Mariae ” in which the death and Assumption of Mary are described in detail ” became popular among the faithful, the facts of her death and Assumption were inserted into the feast... - https://www.catholicculture.org/culture/library/view.cfm?id=469

And William Webster documents,

...the Roman Catholic writer Eamon Duffy concedes that, ˜there is, clearly, no historical evidence whatever for it ...' (Eamon Duffy, What Catholics Believe About Mary (London: Catholic Truth Society, 1989), p. 17).

How then did this teaching come to have such prominence in the Church that eventually led it to be declared an issue of dogma in 1950? The first Church father to affirm explicitly the assumption of Mary in the West was Gregory of Tours in 590 A.D. But the basis for his teaching was not the tradition of the Church but his acceptance of an apocryphal Gospel known as the Transitus Beatae Mariae which we first hear of at the end of the fifth century and which was spuriously attributed to Melito of Sardis. There were many versions of this literature which developed over time and which were found throughout the East and West but they all originated from one source.

[The eminent Mariologist, Juniper Carol, O.F.M.] gives the following historical summary of the Transitus literature:

An intriguing corpus of literature on the final lot of Mary is formed by the apocryphal Transitus Mariae. The genesis of these accounts is shrouded in history's mist. They apparently originated before the close of the fifth century, perhaps in Egypt, perhaps in Syria, in consequence of the stimulus given Marian devotion by the definition of the divine Maternity at Ephesus. The period of proliferation is the sixth century. At least a score of Transitus accounts are extant, in Coptic, Greek, Latin, Syriac, Arabic, Ethiopic, and Armenian. Not all are prototypes, for many are simply variations on more ancient models (Juniper Carol, O.F.M. ed., Mariology, Vol. II (Milwaukee: Bruce, 1957), p. 144).

The first express witness in the West to a genuine assumption comes to us in an apocryphal Gospel, the Transitus Beatae Mariae of Pseudo –Melito' (Juniper Carol, O.F.M. ed., Mariology, Vol. l (Milwaukee: Bruce, 1957), p. 149).
Also,

The account of Pseudo-Melito, like the rest of the Transitus literature, is admittedly valueless as history, as an historical report of Mary's death and corporeal assumption; under that aspect the historian is justified in dismissing it with a critical distaste (Juniper Carol, O.F.M. ed., Mariology, Vol. l (Milwaukee: Bruce, 1957), p. 150).
Also, Roman Catholic theologian, Ludwig Ott, states:

Prior to the seventh and eighth centuries there is complete patristic silence on the doctrine of the Assumption. But gradually, through the influence of numerous forgeries which were believed to be genuine, coupled with the misguided enthusiasm of popular devotion, the doctrine gained a foothold in the Church. The Dictionary of Christian Antiquities gives the following history of the doctrine:...

1)The Liber de Transitu, though classed by Gelasius with the known productions of heretics came to be attributed by one...to Melito, an orthodox bishop of Sardis, in the 2nd century, and by another to St. John the Apostle.

2) A letter suggesting the possibility of the Assumption was written and attributed to St. Jerome (ad Paulam et Eustochium de Assumptione B. Virginis, Op. tom. v. p. 82, Paris, 1706).

3) A treatise to prove it not impossible was composed and attributed to St. Augustine (Op. tom. vi. p. 1142, ed. Migne).

4) Two sermons supporting the belief were written and attributed to St. Athanasius (Op. tom. ii. pp. 393, 416, ed., Ben. Paris, 1698).

5) An insertion was made in Eusebius's Chronicle that ˜in the year 48 Mary the Virgin was taken up into heaven, as some wrote that they had had it revealed to them.' - http://www.christiantruth.com/articles/assumption.html

The church fathers of the earliest centuries repeatedly cite Enoch and Elijah as examples of people who didn't die, were translated to Heaven, etc. (Clement of Rome, First Clement, 9; Tertullian, A Treatise On The Soul, 50; Tertullian, On The Resurrection Of The Flesh, 58; Tertullian, Against Marcion, 5:12; Methodius, From The Discourse On The Resurrection, 14), yet they never say any such thing about Mary or include her as an example. Irenaeus, for instance, writes about the power of God to deliver people from death, and he cites Enoch, Elijah, and Paul (2 Corinthians 12:2) as illustrations of people who were "assumed" and "translated", but he says nothing of Mary (Against Heresies, 5:5). A group of some of the leading Roman Catholic and Lutheran scholars in the world concluded:

"Furthermore, the notion of Mary's assumption into heaven has left no trace in the literature of the third, much less of the second century. M. Jugie, the foremost authority on this question, concluded in his monumental study: 'The patristic tradition prior to the Council of Nicaea does not furnish us with any witness about the Assumption.'" (Raymond Brown, et al., Mary In The New Testament [Mahwah: Paulist Press, 1978], p. 266)

But...history, tradition and Scripture is only what Rome says it is in any conflict, which reasoning no less than Manning resorted to:

It was the charge of the Reformers that the Catholic doctrines were not primitive, and their pretension was to revert to antiquity. But the appeal to antiquity is both a treason and a heresy. It is a treason because it rejects the Divine voice of the Church at this hour, and a heresy because it denies that voice to be Divine... I may say in strict truth that the Church has no antiquity....Primitive and modern are predicates, not of truth, but of ourselves...The only Divine evidence to us of what was primitive is the witness and voice of the Church at this hour. . — Dr. Henry Edward Cardinal Manning, Archbishop of Westminster, The Temporal Mission of the Holy Ghost: Or Reason and Revelation, , pp. 227-228.
It's funny who you choose to believe. You believe who agrees with you, you pick and choose.

Question, though: Why do you think there must be written evidence of this doctrine? Remember, we have Sacred Tradition and the Magisterium.
 
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sculleywr

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Regarding the last, that's not what I said...

Regarding the first,
Infallibility belongs in a special way to the pope as head of the bishops (Matt. 16:17–19; John 21:15–17). As Vatican II remarked, it is a charism the pope "enjoys in virtue of his office, when, as the supreme shepherd and teacher of all the faithful, who confirms his brethren in their faith (Luke 22:32), he proclaims by a definitive act some doctrine of faith or morals. Therefore his definitions, of themselves, and not from the consent of the Church, are justly held irreformable, for they are pronounced with the assistance of the Holy Spirit, an assistance promised to him in blessed Peter."

The infallibility of the pope is not a doctrine that suddenly appeared in Church teaching; rather, it is a doctrine which was implicit in the early Church. It is only our understanding of infallibility which has developed and been more clearly understood over time. In fact, the doctrine of infallibility is implicit in these Petrine texts: John 21:15–17 ("Feed my sheep . . . "), Luke 22:32 ("I have prayed for you that your faith may not fail"), and Matthew 16:18 ("You are Peter . . . ").

Christ instructed the Church to preach everything he taught (Matt. 28:19–20) and promised the protection of the Holy Spirit to "guide you into all the truth" (John 16:13). That mandate and that promise guarantee the Church will never fall away from his teachings (Matt. 16:18, 1 Tim. 3:15), even if individual Catholics might.

As Christians began to more clearly understand the teaching authority of the Church and of the primacy of the pope, they developed a clearer understanding of the pope’s infallibility. This development of the faithful’s understanding has its clear beginnings in the early Church. For example, Cyprian of Carthage, writing about 256, put the question this way, "Would the heretics dare to come to the very seat of Peter whence apostolic faith is derived and whither no errors can come?" (Letters 59 [55], 14). In the fifth century, Augustine succinctly captured the ancient attitude when he remarked, "Rome has spoken; the case is concluded" (Sermons 131, 10).
This is where Roman Catholic doctrine splits off from the eastern teaching. What was revealed in the beginning was true, and remains true to this day. It never changed, never developed, and no man had a better understanding of the Truth than the Apostles themselves. One can find many times where Rome has taken the complete opposite stance of modern RCC. For example, the Pope has declared the Filioque to be heresy. Pope Honorius was condemned a heretic. There was a time when there were three popes. The fact is that the idea of Papal Supremacy and Papal Infallibility takes the deposit of the Truth AWAY from the Church and places it in one man. The Pope himself said that no bishop can be over the other bishops.

First does not equal prime. First means first. I came first among my siblings. Does that make me better than them because I am first? No. Peter was first because he was first to realize and admit "you are the Christ, the Son of the living God." That didn't make him better than Paul when Paul rebuked him for hypocrisy in the Council. He didn't "allow" Paul to do that. It happened. He was rebuked for a real sin, a real error where he was teaching by example a heresy. HE may not have openly said that the Judaizers were right, but by his actions he validated what they were teaching. You don't get a pass on something being "ex cathedra". As a leader, you are ALWAYS teaching in EVERY instance. And without a solid explanation of what makes a statement ex cathedra, everything is up for grabs. You end up with the same buffet style doctrinal diversity that is in Protestantism, just with a different name and slightly more narrow scope.
 
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PeaceByJesus

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* Peter's name occurs first in all lists of apostles (see Mt 10:2; Mk 3:16; Lk 6:14; Acts 1:13). Matthew even calls him "the first" (10:2). (Judas Iscariot is invariably mentioned last.)

* Peter is almost without exception named first whenever he appears with anyone else. In one example to the contrary, Galatians 2:9, where he is listed after James and before John, he is clearly preeminent in the entire context (see, for example, Gal 1:18-19; 2:7-8). Taken in context, Paul is in Jerusalem (2:1), the See of James. Protocol, even to this day is for the Bishop of the diocese to be mentioned first before any visitor is mentioned, even for the Pope. Saint Paul is merely following proper protocol in vs 2:9.

* Peter alone among the apostles receives a new name, "Rock," solemnly conferred (Jn 1:42;
Mt 16:18).

* Peter is asked three times by Christ to feed His lambs, is regarded by Jesus as the chief shepherd after himself (Jn 21:15-17), singularly by name, and over the universal Church, even though others have a similar but subordinate role (Acts 20:28; 1 Pt 5:2).

* Peter alone among the apostles is mentioned by name as having been prayed for by Jesus Christ in order that his "faith fail not" (Lk 22:32).

* Peter alone among the apostles is exhorted by Jesus to "strengthen your brethren" (Lk 22:32).

* Peter first confesses Christ's divinity (Mt 16:16).

* Peter alone is told that he has received divine knowledge by a special revelation (Mt 16:17).

* Peter is regarded by the Jews (Acts 4:1-13) as the leader and spokesman of Christianity.

* Peter is regarded by the common people in the same way (Act 2:37-41;5:15).

* Jesus Christ uniquely associates himself and Peter in the miracle of the tribute money
(Mt 17:24-27).

* Christ teaches from Peter's boat, and the miraculous catch of fish follows (Lk 5:1-11) perhaps a metaphor for the pope as a "fisher of men" (Mt 4:19).

* Peter was the first apostle to set out for, and enter, the empty tomb (Lk 24:12; Jn 20:5-6).

* Peter is specified by an angel as the leader and representative of the apostles (Mk 16:7).

* Peter leads the apostles in fishing (Jn 21:2-3,11). The "bark" (boat) of Peter has been regarded by Catholics as a figure of the Church, with Peter at the helm.

* Peter alone casts himself into the sea to come to Jesus (Jn 21:7).

* Peter's words are the first recorded and most important in the Upper Room before Pentecost
(Acts 1:15-22).

* Peter takes the lead in calling for a replacement for Judas (Acts 1:22).

* Peter is the first person to speak (and only one recorded) after Pentecost, so he was the first Christian to "preach the Gospel" in the Church era (Acts 2:14-36).

* Peter works the first miracle of the Church Age, healing a lame man (Acts 3:6-12).

* Peter utters the first anathema (Ananias and Sapphira) emphatically affirmed by God
(Acts 5:2-11).

* Peter's shadow works miracles (Acts 5:15).

* Peter is the first person after Christ to raise the dead (Acts 9:40).

* Cornelius is told by an angel to seek out Peter for instruction in Christianity (Acts 10:1- 6).

* Peter is the first to receive the Gentiles, after a revelation from God (Acts 10:9-48).

* Peter instructs the other apostles on the catholicity (universality) of the Church (Acts 11:5-17).

* Peter is the object of the first divine interposition on behalf of an individual in the Church Age
(an angel delivers him from prison - Acts 12:1-17).

* The whole Church (strongly implied) prays for Peter "without ceasing" when he is imprisoned (Acts 12:5).

* Peter presides over and opens the first council of Christianity, and lays down principles afterward accepted by it (Acts 15:7-11).

* Paul distinguishes the Lord's post-resurrection appearances to Peter from those to other apostles
(1 Cor 15:4-5).

* Peter is often spoken of as distinct among apostles (Mk 1:36; Lk 9:28,32; Acts 2:37; 5:29;
1 Cor 9:5).

* Peter is often spokesman for the other apostles, especially at climactic moments
(Mk 8:29; Mt 18:21; Lk 9:5; 12:41; Jn 6:67).

* Peter's name is always the first listed of the "inner circle" of the disciples
(Peter, James and John - Mt 17:1; 26:37,40; Mk 5:37; 14:37).

* Peter is often the central figure relating to Jesus in dramatic Gospel scenes such as walking on the water (Mt 14:28-32; Lk 5:1, Mk 10:28; Mt 17:24).

* Peter is the first to recognize and refute heresy, in Simon Magus (Acts 8:14-24).

* Peter's name is mentioned more often than all the other disciples put together: 191 times
(162 as Peter or Simon Peter, 23 as Simon and 6 as Cephas).
John is next in frequency with only 48 appearances, and Peter is present 50 percent of the time we find John in the Bible. Archbishop Fulton Sheen reckoned that all the other disciples combined were mentioned 130 times. If this is correct, Peter is named a remarkable 60 percent of the time any disciple is referred to.

* Peter's proclamation at Pentecost (Acts 2:14-41) contains a fully authoritative interpretation of Scripture, a doctrinal decision and a disciplinary decree concerning members of the "House of Israel" - an example of "binding and loosing."

* Peter was the first "charismatic," having judged authoritatively the first instance of the gift of tongues as genuine (Acts 2:14-21).

* Peter is the first to preach Christian repentance and baptism (Acts 2:38).

* Peter (presumably) takes the lead in the first recorded mass baptism (Acts 2:41).

* Peter commanded the first Gentile Christians to be baptized (Act 10:44-48).

* Peter was the first traveling missionary, and first exercised what would now be called "visitation of the churches" (Acts 9:32-38,43). Paul preached at Damascus immediately after his conversion (Acts 9:20), but had not traveled there for that purpose (God changed his plans). His missionary journeys begin in Acts 13:2.

* Paul went to Jerusalem specifically to see Peter for 15 days at the beginning of his ministry (Gal 1:18), and was commissioned by Peter, James and John (Gal 2:9) to preach to the Gentiles.

* Peter acts, by strong implication, as the chief bishop/shepherd of the Church (1 Pet 5:1), since he exhorts all the other bishops, or "elders."

* Peter interprets prophecy (2 Pet 1:16-21).

* Peter corrects those who misuse Paul's writings (2 Pt 3:15-16).

* Peter wrote his first epistle from Rome, as its bishop, and as the universal bishop (pope) of the early Church, according to most scholars. "Babylon" (1 Pet 5:13) is regarded as code for Rome.
Absolutely none of which shows what was stated, that Peter's street-level leadership among the brethren simply does not translate into the church looking to him the first of a line of infallible popes reigning in Rome, or even being enjoined to submit to him, or remember him as their supreme head - despite the extensive press given to Peter until to Acts 16.

And against which early history also testifies.

Thus your list is an argument against the perpetuated infallible Roman papacy, including what it historically developed into. With all the mentioning of Peter it is simply inconceivable that no even one letter to the churches, includes those by the Lord, even mentions submission to Peter as the supreme head of all the churches, and his office as uniquely possessing the charism of ensured individual infallibility as per Rome.

In addition, what your list ignores is that the primary reason why in "Galatians 2:9, where he is listed after James and before John, he is clearly preeminent in the entire context" is that he was the only apostle ever shown to be guilty of duplicity and to be publicly reproved for sin (not that i can compare with holy Peter). Thus the claim of preeminence here is a negative one as regards warranting the manner of submission popes have enjoined.

Also,
" * Peter is often spokesman for the other apostles, especially at climactic moments"
Including acting as an adversary in seeking (with loving intent) to persuade the Lord from going to the cross.
Peter is the first to receive the Gentiles, after a revelation from God (Acts 10:9-48).
Preaching like an evangelical, purification of the heart before baptism.
"Peter's name is mentioned more often than all the other disciples put together: 191 times
(162 as Peter or Simon Peter, 23 as Simon and 6 as Cephas).
John is next in frequency with only 48 appearances, and Peter is present 50 percent of the time we find John in the Bible. Archbishop Fulton Sheen reckoned that all the other disciples combined were mentioned 130 times. If this is correct, Peter is named a remarkable 60 percent of the time any disciple is referred to.
"
My searching i found "Peter" mentioned by that name 162 times in all of the NT, sometimes together as "Simon Peter," and separately as "Cephas" 6 times, and separately as Simon 17 times at most, for a total of 185, but which includes duplicate accounts and sometimes in the same verse. In addition, a cursory count finds other apostles are mentioned by name about 80 times.

However, by my count Paul is mentioned 163 as "Paul" and 26 times as "Saul" giving him a total of 189 times.

Moreover, he wrote 13 books of Scripture, nearly 50 percent of the New Testament (versus Peter's less than 10%?), and is mentioned after James in Gal. 2:9, and the latter gave the definitive final decree in Act 15, and Peter is not even heard of in Acts after Acts 12, nor in Paul's extensive list of acquaintances in Rm. 16.

Which does not take away from Peter's purity, power and humble, non-lordy leadership among brethren. How much we need a Scriptural leader as Peter today. I dare say that if came back today conservative, God-fearing soul-living evangelicals would overall be the first to give heed to his preaching and spread it, while Caths would call him anti-Catholic for his reproofs their misuse of his name, and traditions of men.
 
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