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Early Christian Writings

Protos

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The cited study suggests otherwise; that the common impression of scholarly consensus is wrong.

Anecdotal evidence and a statistical study are quite different things.


One can still regard the text as canonical and some do. Also, regarding a text as deuteropauline doesn't automatically mean a very late dating - there are those who would accept that one or more of the pastoral letters are post-Pauline, but fairly immediately so, for example.

"80% of statistics are made up".

I honestly don't understand what you don't agree with. You claim anecdotal evidence yet you give me some random quote about 80% of statistics being made up. I didn't look up statistics my friend, I actually read the people who said these things and I can assure you that the 70-80% quote by Robinson and apparently Brown is more or less correct at least for the years 1950-1990.

Second of all, one can accept a book as canonical if it was written yesterday too, as the Mormons do. It doesn't mean it makes sense. If a writing is deutero-Pauline and the book says "Paul, an apostle of Jesus Christ," then I can tell you that you are not using common sense to say that it makes sense to call it "authentic" in the nominal sense of the word and not a whole lot of people would agree with you. A deutero-Pauline letter more or less implies a date after the Apostle's death or else it certainly would have been corrected by the Apostle (see for example 2 Thess). A deutero-Pauline letter does imply a late date. What you meant to say was that it didn't prove it was one. But certainly a deutero-Pauline letter is best to be regarded as 15-30 years after the Apostle's death and I don't think you can cite any consensus against that. Anyone who accepts the Pastorals as deutero-Pauline and very close to the Apostle's death is simply assuming something without any evidence. Moreover, it makes much more sense for a writing closer to the individual's lifetime to be by him especially as in the case of the Pastorals which most scholars accept have genuine "Pauline-like" aspects of style which have led some to suppose a theory of insertion of fragments from a (lost) genuine Pauline letter into them.

Here's a quote regarding that - Anything is possible, but that doesn't make it likely. You've confused what is possible with what is likely. I admit that it is possible that a deutero-Pauline letter is written 1 day after Paul's death just as much as it's possible that the Emperor Nero wrote the whole Pauline corpus! But that doesn't make it very likely, does it?
 
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ebia

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Protos said:
I honestly don't understand what you don't agree with. You claim anecdotal evidence yet you give me some random quote about 80% of statistics being made up. I didn't look up statistics my friend, I actually read the people who said these things
Unless you've surveyed all the literature, or a statistically valid sample of it, you can't put a statistically valid figure on it.

The comment about 80% of statistics being made up is a well known quote and is a swipe at Brown and Robinson, who as far as I know didn't do any such meta-analysis to arrive at their figure.


Second of all, one can accept a book as canonical if it was written yesterday too, as the Mormons do. It doesn't mean it makes sense.
If perfectly reasonable if one accepts that writing under an earlier master's name was accepted practice. A whole mass of pretty conservative scholars accept that half of Isaiah was written much later than the original prophet - but accept the whole book as canonical.

If a writing is deutero-Pauline and the book says "Paul, an apostle of Jesus Christ," then I can tell you that you are not using common sense to say that it makes sense to call it "authentic" in the nominal sense of the word and not a whole lot of people would agree with you.
There's plenty of people that don't have a problem with the idea that, let's say 2Tim may have been written by one of Paul's protégés after his death but is still canonical.


A deutero-Pauline letter more or less implies a date after the Apostle's death or else it certainly would have been corrected by the Apostle (see for example 2 Thess).
Yes, but "after his death" can be one year after his death.

A deutero-Pauline letter does imply a late date. What you meant to say was that it didn't prove it was one. But certainly a deutero-Pauline letter is best to be regarded as 15-30 years after the Apostle's death and I don't think you can cite any consensus against that. Anyone who accepts the Pastorals as deutero-Pauline and very close to the Apostle's death is simply assuming something without any evidence.
Unless you've read their reasoning how can you possibly evaluate it?


Here's a quote regarding that - Anything is possible, but that doesn't make it likely. You've confused what is possible with what is likely. I admit that it is possible that a deutero-Pauline letter is written 1 day after Paul's death just as much as it's possible that the Emperor Nero wrote the whole Pauline corpus! But that doesn't make it very likely, does it?
It largely depends on what assumptions one is making about dating. One can make just as good an argument for close dating as distant dating.
 
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Protos

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protos said:
I honestly don't understand what you don't agree with. You claim anecdotal evidence yet you give me some random quote about 80% of statistics being made up. I didn't look up statistics my friend, I actually read the people who said these things

Unless you've surveyed all the literature, or a statistically valid sample of it, you can't put a statistically valid figure on it.

The comment about 80% of statistics being made up is a well known quote and is a swipe at Brown and Robinson, who as far as I know didn't do any such meta-analysis to arrive at their figure.

Ok, so now it's Brown and Robinson who didn't do meta-analysis. I know Robinson for a fact surveyed 30-50 scholars and I've personally read 5-6 of them. Unless you are willing to say he's lying, you don't have any basis for that. Robinson's book Redating the New Testament is well known for an abundance of citations. He's read so many scholars on New Testament studies that when I started writing down all the names he lists in the Index and I got 3 pages of my large notebook filled out and I was still at around the letter D. So please, check your references before you make your false accusations in order to support your dead cause that tries to say it's ok to say the New Testament books weren't written by who they say they were.

I really wish most scholars would support Ephesians' authenticity. Hopefully these days they are.


protos said:
Second of all, one can accept a book as canonical if it was written yesterday too, as the Mormons do. It doesn't mean it makes sense.

If perfectly reasonable if one accepts that writing under an earlier master's name was accepted practice. A whole mass of pretty conservative scholars accept that half of Isaiah was written much later than the original prophet - but accept the whole book as canonical.
I doubt a whole mass of pretty conservative scholars accept it. Please name them. Now I know there's probably a whole mass of liberals who accept it. A whole mass of liberals could accept that the Earth rotates around Mars, but that doesn't mean anything if it makes no sense. I remember how the atheist Joseph McCabe put it when he saw similar claims about Daniel being 2nd century BC and at the same time authentic: he said something of the sort - any person, even the Arab of the 7th century knows the difference between poetry/symbolism and literal history. It's the same here: no one accepted writing under an earlier master's name and this is evident from the fact that 1 Clement cites these writings as Paul's. Furthermore, those who did write not in Paul's name, but about Paul as if it were history, such as the Acts of Paul and Thecla, were severely criticized and held very guilty of forgery. And I will tell you that the theories of Deutero- and Trito-Isaiah have no ground.


protos said:
If a writing is deutero-Pauline and the book says "Paul, an apostle of Jesus Christ," then I can tell you that you are not using common sense to say that it makes sense to call it "authentic" in the nominal sense of the word and not a whole lot of people would agree with you.

There's plenty of people that don't have a problem with the idea that, let's say 2Tim may have been written by one of Paul's protégés after his death but is still canonical.
Plenty of people also don't have a problem with aliens existing on the planet Mars. It doesn't make it logical or likely. And no, there aren't plenty of conservatives people who don't have a problem with it. Most if not all conservatives accept them as Pauline.


protos said:
A deutero-Pauline letter more or less implies a date after the Apostle's death or else it certainly would have been corrected by the Apostle (see for example 2 Thess).

Yes, but "after his death" can be one year after his death.
How would you know when the forged writing was written? No one does, that's why ranges of 20-30 years are given. Usually it takes about 10-15 years when a collection of Paul's letters as well as his fame can induce such a forgery.

protos said:
A deutero-Pauline letter does imply a late date. What you meant to say was that it didn't prove it was one. But certainly a deutero-Pauline letter is best to be regarded as 15-30 years after the Apostle's death and I don't think you can cite any consensus against that. Anyone who accepts the Pastorals as deutero-Pauline and very close to the Apostle's death is simply assuming something without any evidence.

Unless you've read their reasoning how can you possibly evaluate it?
What reasoning would that be? There's no way to pin down an inauthentic piece of literature to a specific year (unless it dates itself), and most scholars know this.


protos said:
Here's a quote regarding that - Anything is possible, but that doesn't make it likely. You've confused what is possible with what is likely. I admit that it is possible that a deutero-Pauline letter is written 1 day after Paul's death just as much as it's possible that the Emperor Nero wrote the whole Pauline corpus! But that doesn't make it very likely, does it?

It largely depends on what assumptions one is making about dating. One can make just as good an argument for close dating as distant dating.
One can't make an argument for close or distant dating unless there was a major event inbetween. After 70 AD no such event really exists (except perhaps the not-so-heavy persecution of Domitian which is still not "big" enough). There really is no way to say, if let's say 2 Thessalonians is inauthentic, that it was written 66 and not 76 AD. There simply isn't and any attempt to give a specific year is simply, as the German scholars call it, building castles in the air. This is why the Gospels are dated within 10 years and more: i.e. Mark 65-80, Luke 80-90, Matthew 75-85, John c.90-100. You can't say that John is more likely to be written in 91 than 99 AD, that's simply not possible to make an argument based on data.

Personally, I think you should stop agreeing with the liberal and anti-Christian consensus and you should eliminate the false notion that Deutero-Pauline books does not mean they're not forgery. It's simply common sense. The sooner you get rid of that notion, the better it will be for the actual field of biblical scholarship. On this note I can quote Kummel's 12th edition's Preface where he cites a 19th century scholar who says something to the degree of:

"I can't help but feel that the results and conclusions of this book will displease both those seeking more facts (the book says a lot of things are unknown) and will offend the pious who view the Scriptures as holy."

Now if you think that a scholar who openly agrees with that statement considers the New Testament full of Deutero-Pauline books as authentic, you are fooling yourself. And what about 1-2 Peter? I can assure you, no one calls them deutero-Petrine: in other words everyone who does not consider them from Peter, thinks of them as late after the fact inauthentic pieces of literature, written by someone who put Peter's name on them to give them authority.

The sooner you accept that fact and stop kidding yourself, the better it would be.
 
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ebia

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Protos said:
I doubt a whole mass of pretty conservative scholars accept it. Please name them.
Off the top of my head, NT Wright, Pope Benedict XVI and John Goldingay.

All recognise deutero-Isaiah. All affirm it's part of the canonical word of God.

If knowing the author was the only basis for dating a book we would be up a creek without a paddle on most of the bible.

A lot of citations is not the same as a statistically valid meta-study.


And what about 1-2 Peter? I can assure you, no one calls them deutero-Petrine: in other words everyone who does not consider them from Peter, thinks of them as late after the fact inauthentic pieces of literature, written by someone who put Peter's name on them to give them authority.
Doesn't follow. We use "deutero-Isaiah" because there is a "proto-Isaiah" text. Deutero-pauline because there are pauline texts. But most people think that both or neither of the Petrine epistles are genuine, and even if they didn't 1 Peter vs 2 Peter is sufficient to distinguish.

Certainly I've read authors who think they are somewhat later, along with Jude, but still canonical.

Interestingly, no-one I've come across talks about pseudo-Isaiah, pseudo-Pauline or pseudo-Petrine, which would be the appropriate term if one thought them completely spurious as pseudo-Philo for example.
 
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Radagast

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It's supposed to have lost letters that Paul wrote. The website is earlychristianwritingsdotcom

It does not have any "lost letters" of Paul, but it has a good mix of early Christian and non-Christian writings.

Ignatius of Antioch and Polycarp are very early Christians, and their writings are well worth a read. They are not Scripture, of course.
 
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Radagast

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To say that a book is Deutero-Pauline might not be the same as rejecting it for some scholars, but for most it's undoubtedly their nice way of saying it. And I'm pretty sure that 80% for Ephesians was fairly accurate - absolutely every book I picked up on the topic that has been written since 1950 claimed it wasn't by Paul...

Evangelical scholars have always agreed that Ephesians was by Paul.
 
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Soulgazer

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But who decided what was the infallible Word of Truth and what wasn't?
The council of Trent, ci 1540.


I like the website because of it's highly accurate dating. I would date "Acts" somewhat later than they do, but all in all it's very good. You can find various translations, as well as writings that were formerly canon, or just regionally canon, plus a wide variety of scholastic commentary from people with no axe to grind.
 
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Albion

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If you just look at the Didache you can see how extremely Catholic the early Church was. That is proof that the early Church is the Catholic Church.

The most distinctive characteristic of the Roman Catholic Church is an infallible Papacy. What does the Didache have to say about that?
 
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kql314

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Hello- Something I think that is important to mention is that whether or not something is biblical, or from the apocrypha, or none of the above- there are many worthwhile Christians writings to read- especially from the early centuries (and later).
Just because the Didache or Letters from Ignatius are not "inspired" does not mean they are not relevant and significant for today's Christian to read and study, and learn from.

Likewise, Christians read Calvin's Institutes, and might read the Westminster Confessions, and others. They are not "holy" and inspired, but are quite valuable in their own right.

Blessings....
 
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Albion

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Hello- Something I think that is important to mention is that whether or not something is biblical, or from the apocrypha, or none of the above- there are many worthwhile Christians writings to read- especially from the early centuries (and later).
Just because the Didache or Letters from Ignatius are not "inspired" does not mean they are not relevant and significant for today's Christian to read and study, and learn from.

Likewise, Christians read Calvin's Institutes, and might read the Westminster Confessions, and others. They are not "holy" and inspired, but are quite valuable in their own right.

Blessings....

There is a difference, however. No one refers to the Westminster Confession as "inspired"-- you are correct about that. However, it is common for the Traditionist churches to refer to the Didache and anything written by any well-known Christian bishop, theologian, etc. from the first several centuries of Church History and use them to prove some doctrine. Taken as you suggest we do, however, they are indeed worth reading. They are witnesses to the state of the Church at that time, but that state could be correct or it might just as well be somewhat off the tracks.
 
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hedrick

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I lost track of this thread and didn't reply when I probably should have.

I'm not entirely sure which books are not by their traditional authors. But I would say that if I'm convinced that, e.g., the Pastorals are not by Paul it would seriously undermine my use of them. Hebrews is not a problem: there's no claimed author, it's just some people guessing that it's Paul. But the Pastorals clearly claim Paul, and they interweave enough details that it's to just someone giving homage to Paul as his inspiration. Readers are intended to assume that it's Paul. If it's not, then this is dishonesty, almost certainly to give the letters Apostolic authority that they wouldn't otherwise have.
 
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Albion

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Since the Bible does not say what its contents should be, however, it was necessary for the Church to determine which books should and should not be included.

It's true that the churches used different books and then there was a canonization that decided to use one set of books. Then the list was reassessed during the Reformation, when the listing used by one set of Jews in Jesus' time was adopted rather than the listing used by the other set of Jews. During the Counter-Reformation, the Roman Church threw out some books it had been using since antiquity, so in the end, the "contents" have changed a number of times. The base, however, has always been the 66 books included in the Authorized Version of the Bible, and this is something all Christians have in common.

the Church is the pillar of the truth for Christians, so we look to her to define Holy Texts.

The people of God are the pillar. It is US who are expected to uphold God's revelation. We all are, of course, "the Church" in the truest sense, although some prefer to think of their own denomination as "the Church."
 
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ebia

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hedrick said:
I lost track of this thread and didn't reply when I probably should have.

I'm not entirely sure which books are not by their traditional authors. But I would say that if I'm convinced that, e.g., the Pastorals are not by Paul it would seriously undermine my use of them. Hebrews is not a problem: there's no claimed author, it's just some people guessing that it's Paul. But the Pastorals clearly claim Paul, and they interweave enough details that it's to just someone giving homage to Paul as his inspiration. Readers are intended to assume that it's Paul. If it's not, then this is dishonesty, almost certainly to give the letters Apostolic authority that they wouldn't otherwise have.

What about Richard Bauckham's suggestion that the readers of 2 Peter are supposed to realise that it's claimed authorship by Peter is an established literary device?
 
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Root of Jesse

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I lost track of this thread and didn't reply when I probably should have.

I'm not entirely sure which books are not by their traditional authors. But I would say that if I'm convinced that, e.g., the Pastorals are not by Paul it would seriously undermine my use of them. Hebrews is not a problem: there's no claimed author, it's just some people guessing that it's Paul. But the Pastorals clearly claim Paul, and they interweave enough details that it's to just someone giving homage to Paul as his inspiration. Readers are intended to assume that it's Paul. If it's not, then this is dishonesty, almost certainly to give the letters Apostolic authority that they wouldn't otherwise have.
So you're questioning the canonicity of scripture? I wonder why people who knew Christ or his apostles would include as Scripture something that was to be disregarded...
 
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Root of Jesse

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It's true that the churches used different books and then there was a canonization that decided to use one set of books. Then the list was reassessed during the Reformation, when the listing used by one set of Jews in Jesus' time was adopted rather than the listing used by the other set of Jews. During the Counter-Reformation, the Roman Church threw out some books it had been using since antiquity, so in the end, the "contents" have changed a number of times. The base, however, has always been the 66 books included in the Authorized Version of the Bible, and this is something all Christians have in common.
#1-why would Christians look to Jews to determine Christian scripture?

#2 What books did the "Roman Church" throw out, that had been used since antiquity?
#3 And, if the contents have changed a number of times, why is it we, the "Roman Church" are using the same canon that was documented in the early 300's?
#4 You say "the base has always been..." you should append that with "since the Protestant Revolt."
The people of God are the pillar. It is US who are expected to uphold God's revelation. We all are, of course, "the Church" in the truest sense, although some prefer to think of their own denomination as "the Church."

Who would that be? Especially since it's been stated by Catholics many times on other threads that all Christians are "the Church"???:confused:
 
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